Neurology Board Exam Started: Jul 12, 2026 22:41 Page 53 of 57 Attempt #1193 Overall: 0 / 284 questions answered Question 261 / 284 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 41-year-old man presents with thunderclap headache. Relevant risk context includes family history of epilepsy. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Acute ischemic stroke B. Multiple sclerosis C. Myasthenia gravis D. Focal epilepsy E. Subarachnoid hemorrhage Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: The pattern of thunderclap headache with risk factors such as family history of epilepsy is most consistent with Myasthenia gravis. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Neurology. Reference: AAN Practice Guidelines; Neurology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 262 / 284 Not answered During ward handover: a 56-year-old woman is evaluated for sudden unilateral weakness and aphasia in the context of vascular risk factors. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. EEG B. CT angiography head and neck C. Non-contrast CT brain D. MRI brain with diffusion E. Lumbar puncture when indicated Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Non-contrast CT brain is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Neurology. Reference: McDonald Criteria for Multiple Sclerosis Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 263 / 284 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 24-year-old man has thunderclap headache with risk profile of autoimmune background. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Time-sensitive stroke reperfusion pathway B. Evidence-based migraine prophylaxis C. Appropriate antiseizure medication D. Disease-modifying therapy for relapsing MS E. Early neurorehabilitation planning Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: Disease-modifying therapy for relapsing MS is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Neurology. Reference: AAN Practice Guidelines; Neurology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 264 / 284 Not answered During ward handover: a 72-year-old woman has recurrent stereotyped focal events with risk profile of smoking. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Early neurorehabilitation planning B. Time-sensitive stroke reperfusion pathway C. Disease-modifying therapy for relapsing MS D. Appropriate antiseizure medication E. Evidence-based migraine prophylaxis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Time-sensitive stroke reperfusion pathway is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Neurology. Reference: McDonald Criteria for Multiple Sclerosis Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 265 / 284 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 65-year-old man presents with sudden unilateral weakness and aphasia. Relevant risk context includes hypertension. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Migraine with aura B. Myasthenia gravis C. Multiple sclerosis D. Focal epilepsy E. Subarachnoid hemorrhage Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: The pattern of sudden unilateral weakness and aphasia with risk factors such as hypertension is most consistent with Focal epilepsy. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Neurology. Reference: ILAE Epilepsy Guidance; Neurology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 53 of 57 Next → »