Nephrology Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 05:06 Page 13 of 55 Attempt #2006 Overall: 0 / 274 questions answered Question 61 / 274 Not answered During preoperative assessment: A 45-year-old man has colicky flank pain radiating to groin and microscopic hematuria. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Acute glomerulonephritis B. Appendicitis always C. Testicular torsion excluded D. Ureteric stone E. Polycystic kidney disease proven Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: [Nephrology] Colicky flank-to-groin pain with hematuria is typical of ureteric stone. Reference: EAU Urolithiasis Guideline. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 62 / 274 Not answered During preoperative assessment: A patient presents with oliguria after sepsis. Creatinine rises from 80 to 190 micromol/L in 48 hours. What is the diagnosis? A. Chronic stable CKD only B. Nephrotic syndrome C. Acute kidney injury D. Fanconi syndrome E. Renal artery stenosis proven Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: [Nephrology] Rapid rise in creatinine over 48 hours fulfills AKI criteria. Reference: KDIGO Acute Kidney Injury Guideline. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 63 / 274 Not answered During preoperative assessment: A 64-year-old man with CKD and albuminuria has BP 150/90. Which drug class is kidney-protective if tolerated? A. Short-acting beta agonist B. ACE inhibitor or ARB C. Loop diuretic as only renoprotective drug D. Aminoglycoside E. NSAID Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: [Nephrology] ACE inhibitors or ARBs reduce proteinuria and slow CKD progression in albuminuric disease. Reference: KDIGO Blood Pressure in CKD Guideline. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 64 / 274 Not answered During preoperative assessment: A diabetic patient has eGFR 52 mL/min/1.73m2 and ACR 40 mg/mmol for 4 months. What does this indicate? A. Chronic kidney disease B. Acute kidney injury only C. Normal renal function D. Nephrotic syndrome always E. Transient dehydration only Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: [Nephrology] Kidney abnormality for more than 3 months, including reduced eGFR or increased albuminuria, defines CKD. Reference: KDIGO CKD Evaluation and Management Guideline. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 65 / 274 Not answered In a ward handover scenario: A dialysis patient has peaked T waves and potassium 6.8 mmol/L. What is the immediate cardiac membrane stabilizer? A. Oral resonium as sole immediate therapy B. Nebulized saline C. IV iron D. Furosemide only E. IV calcium gluconate Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: [Nephrology] ECG changes in severe hyperkalemia require immediate IV calcium to stabilize myocardium. Reference: KDIGO/UK Kidney Association Hyperkalemia Guidance. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 13 of 55 Next → »