Nephrology Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 08:42 Page 17 of 55 Attempt #2417 Overall: 0 / 274 questions answered Question 81 / 274 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 55-year-old woman presents with hydronephrosis with post-void retention. Relevant risk context includes volume depletion. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis B. Hyperkalemic emergency C. Acute kidney injury D. Nephrotic syndrome E. Obstructive uropathy Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: The pattern of hydronephrosis with post-void retention with risk factors such as volume depletion is most consistent with Obstructive uropathy. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Nephrology. Reference: ASN/ERA Position Statements Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 82 / 274 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 43-year-old woman has oliguria with rising creatinine with risk profile of prostatic enlargement. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Urgent hyperkalemia stabilization protocol B. Renin-angiotensin system blockade when indicated C. Volume status-guided AKI management D. Timely renal replacement therapy for urgent indications E. Blood pressure optimization in CKD Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Renin-angiotensin system blockade when indicated is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Nephrology. Reference: KDIGO AKI Guideline; Nephrology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 83 / 274 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 64-year-old man is evaluated for oliguria with rising creatinine in the context of volume depletion. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Serum potassium with ECG B. Kidney biopsy when indicated C. Urine protein-to-creatinine ratio D. Urinalysis with microscopy E. Renal ultrasound Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Renal ultrasound is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Nephrology. Reference: KDIGO AKI Guideline; Nephrology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 84 / 274 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 28-year-old woman has muscle weakness with peaked T waves with risk profile of recent nephrotoxin exposure. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Nephrotoxin avoidance strategy B. Urgent hyperkalemia stabilization protocol C. Volume status-guided AKI management D. Blood pressure optimization in CKD E. Renin-angiotensin system blockade when indicated Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Renin-angiotensin system blockade when indicated is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Nephrology. Reference: KDIGO CKD Guideline; Nephrology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 85 / 274 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 74-year-old man presents with hematuria with RBC casts. Relevant risk context includes prostatic enlargement. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis B. Acute kidney injury C. Obstructive uropathy D. Nephrotic syndrome E. Chronic kidney disease progression Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: The pattern of hematuria with RBC casts with risk factors such as prostatic enlargement is most consistent with Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Nephrology. Reference: ASN/ERA Position Statements Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 17 of 55 Next → »