Nephrology Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 11:21 Page 20 of 55 Attempt #2659 Overall: 0 / 274 questions answered Question 96 / 274 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 38-year-old man presents with uremic symptoms. Relevant risk context includes diabetes. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Acute kidney injury B. Nephrotic syndrome C. Obstructive uropathy D. Chronic kidney disease progression E. Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: The pattern of uremic symptoms with risk factors such as diabetes is most consistent with Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Nephrology. Reference: NICE CKD Guidance; Nephrology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 97 / 274 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 44-year-old woman presents with oliguria with rising creatinine. Relevant risk context includes prostatic enlargement. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Hyperkalemic emergency B. Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis C. Acute kidney injury D. Nephrotic syndrome E. Obstructive uropathy Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: The pattern of oliguria with rising creatinine with risk factors such as prostatic enlargement is most consistent with Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Nephrology. Reference: NICE CKD Guidance; Nephrology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 98 / 274 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 64-year-old man presents with hydronephrosis with post-void retention. Relevant risk context includes autoimmune disease. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Acute kidney injury B. Chronic kidney disease progression C. Hyperkalemic emergency D. Obstructive uropathy E. Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: The pattern of hydronephrosis with post-void retention with risk factors such as autoimmune disease is most consistent with Obstructive uropathy. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Nephrology. Reference: KDIGO AKI Guideline; Nephrology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 99 / 274 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 52-year-old woman has muscle weakness with peaked T waves with risk profile of long-standing hypertension. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Timely renal replacement therapy for urgent indications B. Blood pressure optimization in CKD C. Urgent hyperkalemia stabilization protocol D. Volume status-guided AKI management E. Renin-angiotensin system blockade when indicated Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Renin-angiotensin system blockade when indicated is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Nephrology. Reference: NICE CKD Guidance; Nephrology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 100 / 274 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 71-year-old man presents with generalized edema with heavy proteinuria. Relevant risk context includes recent nephrotoxin exposure. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Acute kidney injury B. Chronic kidney disease progression C. Hyperkalemic emergency D. Obstructive uropathy E. Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: The pattern of generalized edema with heavy proteinuria with risk factors such as recent nephrotoxin exposure is most consistent with Chronic kidney disease progression. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Nephrology. Reference: KDIGO AKI Guideline; Nephrology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 20 of 55 Next → »