Nephrology Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 12:23 Page 21 of 55 Attempt #2707 Overall: 0 / 274 questions answered Question 101 / 274 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 29-year-old woman presents with generalized edema with heavy proteinuria. Relevant risk context includes long-standing hypertension. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Nephrotic syndrome B. Acute kidney injury C. Chronic kidney disease progression D. Obstructive uropathy E. Hyperkalemic emergency Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: The pattern of generalized edema with heavy proteinuria with risk factors such as long-standing hypertension is most consistent with Obstructive uropathy. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Nephrology. Reference: KDIGO AKI Guideline; Nephrology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 102 / 274 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 55-year-old man presents with generalized edema with heavy proteinuria. Relevant risk context includes diabetes. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Acute kidney injury B. Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis C. Obstructive uropathy D. Nephrotic syndrome E. Hyperkalemic emergency Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: The pattern of generalized edema with heavy proteinuria with risk factors such as diabetes is most consistent with Obstructive uropathy. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Nephrology. Reference: NICE CKD Guidance; Nephrology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 103 / 274 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 60-year-old woman presents with hematuria with RBC casts. Relevant risk context includes long-standing hypertension. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Nephrotic syndrome B. Hyperkalemic emergency C. Chronic kidney disease progression D. Acute kidney injury E. Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: The pattern of hematuria with RBC casts with risk factors such as long-standing hypertension is most consistent with Hyperkalemic emergency. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Nephrology. Reference: KDIGO AKI Guideline; Nephrology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 104 / 274 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 73-year-old woman is evaluated for hydronephrosis with post-void retention in the context of long-standing hypertension. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Autoimmune nephritic screen B. Serum potassium with ECG C. Urinalysis with microscopy D. Urine protein-to-creatinine ratio E. Kidney biopsy when indicated Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Autoimmune nephritic screen is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Nephrology. Reference: KDIGO AKI Guideline; Nephrology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 105 / 274 Not answered During morning rounds: a 32-year-old woman presents with muscle weakness with peaked T waves. Relevant risk context includes diabetes. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Obstructive uropathy B. Nephrotic syndrome C. Chronic kidney disease progression D. Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis E. Acute kidney injury Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: The pattern of muscle weakness with peaked T waves with risk factors such as diabetes is most consistent with Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Nephrology. Reference: NICE CKD Guidance; Nephrology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 21 of 55 Next → »