Nephrology Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 14:01 Page 23 of 55 Attempt #2796 Overall: 0 / 274 questions answered Question 111 / 274 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 51-year-old man has hydronephrosis with post-void retention with risk profile of prostatic enlargement. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Renin-angiotensin system blockade when indicated B. Volume status-guided AKI management C. Blood pressure optimization in CKD D. Urgent hyperkalemia stabilization protocol E. Timely renal replacement therapy for urgent indications Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Timely renal replacement therapy for urgent indications is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Nephrology. Reference: NICE CKD Guidance; Nephrology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 112 / 274 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 76-year-old man is evaluated for hematuria with RBC casts in the context of long-standing hypertension. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Urine protein-to-creatinine ratio B. Urinalysis with microscopy C. Serum potassium with ECG D. Autoimmune nephritic screen E. Renal ultrasound Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Serum potassium with ECG is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Nephrology. Reference: KDIGO AKI Guideline; Nephrology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 113 / 274 Not answered During ward handover: a 51-year-old woman presents with oliguria with rising creatinine. Relevant risk context includes recent nephrotoxin exposure. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Acute kidney injury B. Nephrotic syndrome C. Obstructive uropathy D. Chronic kidney disease progression E. Hyperkalemic emergency Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: The pattern of oliguria with rising creatinine with risk factors such as recent nephrotoxin exposure is most consistent with Nephrotic syndrome. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Nephrology. Reference: KDIGO AKI Guideline; Nephrology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 114 / 274 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 29-year-old man presents with muscle weakness with peaked T waves. Relevant risk context includes diabetes. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Nephrotic syndrome B. Obstructive uropathy C. Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis D. Hyperkalemic emergency E. Acute kidney injury Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: The pattern of muscle weakness with peaked T waves with risk factors such as diabetes is most consistent with Nephrotic syndrome. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Nephrology. Reference: KDIGO CKD Guideline; Nephrology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 115 / 274 Not answered During ward handover: a 41-year-old woman has hydronephrosis with post-void retention with risk profile of volume depletion. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Volume status-guided AKI management B. Renin-angiotensin system blockade when indicated C. Timely renal replacement therapy for urgent indications D. Nephrotoxin avoidance strategy E. Urgent hyperkalemia stabilization protocol Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Urgent hyperkalemia stabilization protocol is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Nephrology. Reference: ASN/ERA Position Statements Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 23 of 55 Next → »