Nephrology Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 16:13 Page 31 of 55 Attempt #2897 Overall: 0 / 274 questions answered Question 151 / 274 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 65-year-old woman has muscle weakness with peaked T waves with risk profile of long-standing hypertension. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Renin-angiotensin system blockade when indicated B. Urgent hyperkalemia stabilization protocol C. Blood pressure optimization in CKD D. Nephrotoxin avoidance strategy E. Volume status-guided AKI management Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: Nephrotoxin avoidance strategy is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Nephrology. Reference: KDIGO AKI Guideline; Nephrology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 152 / 274 Not answered During morning rounds: a 60-year-old woman presents with hematuria with RBC casts. Relevant risk context includes prostatic enlargement. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Obstructive uropathy B. Hyperkalemic emergency C. Nephrotic syndrome D. Acute kidney injury E. Chronic kidney disease progression Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: The pattern of hematuria with RBC casts with risk factors such as prostatic enlargement is most consistent with Chronic kidney disease progression. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Nephrology. Reference: NICE CKD Guidance; Nephrology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 153 / 274 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 65-year-old man presents with hydronephrosis with post-void retention. Relevant risk context includes prostatic enlargement. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Acute kidney injury B. Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis C. Chronic kidney disease progression D. Nephrotic syndrome E. Obstructive uropathy Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: The pattern of hydronephrosis with post-void retention with risk factors such as prostatic enlargement is most consistent with Obstructive uropathy. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Nephrology. Reference: KDIGO AKI Guideline; Nephrology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 154 / 274 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 41-year-old man presents with uremic symptoms. Relevant risk context includes long-standing hypertension. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Obstructive uropathy B. Hyperkalemic emergency C. Acute kidney injury D. Chronic kidney disease progression E. Nephrotic syndrome Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: The pattern of uremic symptoms with risk factors such as long-standing hypertension is most consistent with Nephrotic syndrome. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Nephrology. Reference: KDIGO AKI Guideline; Nephrology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 155 / 274 Not answered During morning rounds: a 30-year-old man is evaluated for oliguria with rising creatinine in the context of autoimmune disease. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Serum potassium with ECG B. Urine protein-to-creatinine ratio C. Autoimmune nephritic screen D. Renal ultrasound E. Urinalysis with microscopy Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Urinalysis with microscopy is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Nephrology. Reference: NICE CKD Guidance; Nephrology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 31 of 55 Next → »