Nephrology Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 15:11 Page 32 of 55 Attempt #2848 Overall: 0 / 274 questions answered Question 156 / 274 Not answered During morning rounds: a 39-year-old man is evaluated for hydronephrosis with post-void retention in the context of autoimmune disease. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Renal ultrasound B. Serum potassium with ECG C. Kidney biopsy when indicated D. Urine protein-to-creatinine ratio E. Urinalysis with microscopy Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Serum potassium with ECG is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Nephrology. Reference: ASN/ERA Position Statements Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 157 / 274 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 46-year-old woman presents with hydronephrosis with post-void retention. Relevant risk context includes autoimmune disease. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Obstructive uropathy B. Hyperkalemic emergency C. Nephrotic syndrome D. Chronic kidney disease progression E. Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: The pattern of hydronephrosis with post-void retention with risk factors such as autoimmune disease is most consistent with Chronic kidney disease progression. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Nephrology. Reference: NICE CKD Guidance; Nephrology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 158 / 274 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 60-year-old woman is evaluated for hydronephrosis with post-void retention in the context of diabetes. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Kidney biopsy when indicated B. Urinalysis with microscopy C. Urine protein-to-creatinine ratio D. Serum potassium with ECG E. Renal ultrasound Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Urine protein-to-creatinine ratio is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Nephrology. Reference: NICE CKD Guidance; Nephrology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 159 / 274 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 24-year-old woman presents with oliguria with rising creatinine. Relevant risk context includes long-standing hypertension. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Nephrotic syndrome B. Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis C. Acute kidney injury D. Hyperkalemic emergency E. Obstructive uropathy Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: The pattern of oliguria with rising creatinine with risk factors such as long-standing hypertension is most consistent with Obstructive uropathy. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Nephrology. Reference: NICE CKD Guidance; Nephrology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 160 / 274 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 68-year-old woman has uremic symptoms with risk profile of autoimmune disease. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Nephrotoxin avoidance strategy B. Urgent hyperkalemia stabilization protocol C. Renin-angiotensin system blockade when indicated D. Volume status-guided AKI management E. Timely renal replacement therapy for urgent indications Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Renin-angiotensin system blockade when indicated is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Nephrology. Reference: KDIGO CKD Guideline; Nephrology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 32 of 55 Next → »