Nephrology Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 14:11 Page 33 of 55 Attempt #2804 Overall: 0 / 274 questions answered Question 161 / 274 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 70-year-old woman presents with hematuria with RBC casts. Relevant risk context includes long-standing hypertension. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis B. Hyperkalemic emergency C. Nephrotic syndrome D. Acute kidney injury E. Obstructive uropathy Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: The pattern of hematuria with RBC casts with risk factors such as long-standing hypertension is most consistent with Obstructive uropathy. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Nephrology. Reference: NICE CKD Guidance; Nephrology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 162 / 274 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 47-year-old man is evaluated for uremic symptoms in the context of long-standing hypertension. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Serum potassium with ECG B. Renal ultrasound C. Autoimmune nephritic screen D. Urinalysis with microscopy E. Urine protein-to-creatinine ratio Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: Urinalysis with microscopy is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Nephrology. Reference: KDIGO CKD Guideline; Nephrology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 163 / 274 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 31-year-old woman has generalized edema with heavy proteinuria with risk profile of recent nephrotoxin exposure. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Urgent hyperkalemia stabilization protocol B. Timely renal replacement therapy for urgent indications C. Volume status-guided AKI management D. Renin-angiotensin system blockade when indicated E. Nephrotoxin avoidance strategy Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Volume status-guided AKI management is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Nephrology. Reference: NICE CKD Guidance; Nephrology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 164 / 274 Not answered During morning rounds: a 80-year-old woman presents with hematuria with RBC casts. Relevant risk context includes long-standing hypertension. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Nephrotic syndrome B. Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis C. Chronic kidney disease progression D. Acute kidney injury E. Obstructive uropathy Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: The pattern of hematuria with RBC casts with risk factors such as long-standing hypertension is most consistent with Acute kidney injury. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Nephrology. Reference: NICE CKD Guidance; Nephrology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 165 / 274 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 50-year-old man presents with oliguria with rising creatinine. Relevant risk context includes recent nephrotoxin exposure. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Acute kidney injury B. Nephrotic syndrome C. Chronic kidney disease progression D. Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis E. Hyperkalemic emergency Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: The pattern of oliguria with rising creatinine with risk factors such as recent nephrotoxin exposure is most consistent with Nephrotic syndrome. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Nephrology. Reference: KDIGO AKI Guideline; Nephrology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 33 of 55 Next → »