Nephrology Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 11:51 Page 36 of 55 Attempt #2670 Overall: 0 / 274 questions answered Question 176 / 274 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 70-year-old woman has muscle weakness with peaked T waves with risk profile of long-standing hypertension. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Nephrotoxin avoidance strategy B. Renin-angiotensin system blockade when indicated C. Blood pressure optimization in CKD D. Volume status-guided AKI management E. Timely renal replacement therapy for urgent indications Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Nephrotoxin avoidance strategy is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Nephrology. Reference: KDIGO CKD Guideline; Nephrology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 177 / 274 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 46-year-old woman presents with muscle weakness with peaked T waves. Relevant risk context includes autoimmune disease. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Nephrotic syndrome B. Hyperkalemic emergency C. Obstructive uropathy D. Chronic kidney disease progression E. Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: The pattern of muscle weakness with peaked T waves with risk factors such as autoimmune disease is most consistent with Nephrotic syndrome. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Nephrology. Reference: KDIGO CKD Guideline; Nephrology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 178 / 274 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 73-year-old man presents with muscle weakness with peaked T waves. Relevant risk context includes long-standing hypertension. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Chronic kidney disease progression B. Nephrotic syndrome C. Obstructive uropathy D. Acute kidney injury E. Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: The pattern of muscle weakness with peaked T waves with risk factors such as long-standing hypertension is most consistent with Acute kidney injury. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Nephrology. Reference: KDIGO AKI Guideline; Nephrology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 179 / 274 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 81-year-old man has uremic symptoms with risk profile of diabetes. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Blood pressure optimization in CKD B. Volume status-guided AKI management C. Timely renal replacement therapy for urgent indications D. Urgent hyperkalemia stabilization protocol E. Nephrotoxin avoidance strategy Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: Urgent hyperkalemia stabilization protocol is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Nephrology. Reference: KDIGO AKI Guideline; Nephrology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 180 / 274 Not answered During ward handover: a 27-year-old woman presents with hematuria with RBC casts. Relevant risk context includes long-standing hypertension. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Chronic kidney disease progression B. Nephrotic syndrome C. Hyperkalemic emergency D. Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis E. Acute kidney injury Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: The pattern of hematuria with RBC casts with risk factors such as long-standing hypertension is most consistent with Chronic kidney disease progression. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Nephrology. Reference: NICE CKD Guidance; Nephrology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 36 of 55 Next → »