Nephrology Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 08:35 Page 40 of 55 Attempt #2414 Overall: 0 / 274 questions answered Question 196 / 274 Not answered During morning rounds: a 71-year-old man has muscle weakness with peaked T waves with risk profile of autoimmune disease. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Renin-angiotensin system blockade when indicated B. Urgent hyperkalemia stabilization protocol C. Nephrotoxin avoidance strategy D. Blood pressure optimization in CKD E. Volume status-guided AKI management Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: Blood pressure optimization in CKD is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Nephrology. Reference: KDIGO AKI Guideline; Nephrology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 197 / 274 Not answered During morning rounds: a 44-year-old man is evaluated for hydronephrosis with post-void retention in the context of recent nephrotoxin exposure. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Autoimmune nephritic screen B. Serum potassium with ECG C. Urinalysis with microscopy D. Urine protein-to-creatinine ratio E. Kidney biopsy when indicated Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Urinalysis with microscopy is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Nephrology. Reference: KDIGO CKD Guideline; Nephrology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 198 / 274 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 65-year-old man has hematuria with RBC casts with risk profile of prostatic enlargement. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Volume status-guided AKI management B. Timely renal replacement therapy for urgent indications C. Blood pressure optimization in CKD D. Renin-angiotensin system blockade when indicated E. Nephrotoxin avoidance strategy Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: Renin-angiotensin system blockade when indicated is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Nephrology. Reference: ASN/ERA Position Statements Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 199 / 274 Not answered During morning rounds: a 79-year-old man presents with muscle weakness with peaked T waves. Relevant risk context includes long-standing hypertension. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis B. Chronic kidney disease progression C. Nephrotic syndrome D. Obstructive uropathy E. Acute kidney injury Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: The pattern of muscle weakness with peaked T waves with risk factors such as long-standing hypertension is most consistent with Chronic kidney disease progression. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Nephrology. Reference: KDIGO CKD Guideline; Nephrology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 200 / 274 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 26-year-old woman is evaluated for generalized edema with heavy proteinuria in the context of recent nephrotoxin exposure. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Renal ultrasound B. Autoimmune nephritic screen C. Kidney biopsy when indicated D. Serum potassium with ECG E. Urinalysis with microscopy Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: Serum potassium with ECG is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Nephrology. Reference: KDIGO CKD Guideline; Nephrology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 40 of 55 Next → »