Endocrinology Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 03:17 Page 11 of 57 Attempt #1771 Overall: 0 / 283 questions answered Question 51 / 283 Not answered During an emergency department assessment: A 38-year-old woman has TSH suppressed and high free T4 with diffuse goiter and ophthalmopathy. What is the likely diagnosis? A. Hashimoto hypothyroidism B. Subacute thyroiditis always C. Graves disease D. Central hypothyroidism E. Iodine deficiency only Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: [Endocrinology] Hyperthyroidism with diffuse goiter and ophthalmopathy is characteristic of Graves disease. Reference: American Thyroid Association Hyperthyroidism Guideline. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 52 / 283 Not answered During an emergency department assessment: A 21-year-old has polyuria, weight loss, ketones, glucose 24 mmol/L, pH 7.21, and bicarbonate 12 mmol/L. What is the diagnosis? A. Hyperthyroidism B. Diabetic ketoacidosis C. SIADH D. Diabetes insipidus only E. Hypoglycemia Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: [Endocrinology] Hyperglycemia, ketones, and metabolic acidosis diagnose DKA. Reference: ADA Standards of Care in Diabetes 2026; JBDS DKA Guideline. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 53 / 283 Not answered During an emergency department assessment: A 45-year-old woman has HbA1c 8.4% despite lifestyle measures. She has obesity and eGFR 90. What is first-line pharmacologic therapy unless contraindicated? A. Metformin B. Insulin only for all patients C. Glibenclamide mandatory first D. Levothyroxine E. Hydrocortisone Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: [Endocrinology] Metformin is generally first-line for type 2 diabetes when tolerated and not contraindicated, alongside lifestyle. Reference: ADA Standards of Care in Diabetes 2026. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 54 / 283 Not answered A 30-year-old woman has galactorrhea, amenorrhea, and prolactin 180 ng/mL. Pregnancy test is negative. What is the appropriate next evaluation? A. Start estrogen without workup B. Ignore prolactin if amenorrhea is present C. Adrenal CT first in all patients D. Diagnose menopause E. Review drugs and check TSH, then pituitary MRI if persistent elevation Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: [Endocrinology] Hyperprolactinemia evaluation includes pregnancy exclusion, medication review, TSH, and pituitary imaging for persistent unexplained elevation. Reference: Endocrine Society Hyperprolactinemia Guideline. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 55 / 283 Not answered A patient has cortisol excess, suppressed ACTH, and adrenal mass. What is the likely category? A. Pituitary Cushing disease B. Ectopic ACTH syndrome C. Primary adrenal insufficiency D. ACTH-independent Cushing syndrome E. Pheochromocytoma only Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: [Endocrinology] High cortisol with suppressed ACTH indicates ACTH-independent adrenal cortisol production. Reference: Endocrine Society Cushing Syndrome Guideline. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 11 of 57 Next → »