Endocrinology Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 08:37 Page 17 of 57 Attempt #2415 Overall: 0 / 283 questions answered Question 81 / 283 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 73-year-old man has fatigue with cold intolerance with risk profile of pituitary pathology. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Evidence-based osteoporosis risk reduction B. Individualized glucose-lowering plan C. Targeted management of hypercortisolism cause D. Levothyroxine replacement with TSH-guided titration E. Antithyroid therapy with risk stratification Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Individualized glucose-lowering plan is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Endocrinology. Reference: ADA Standards of Care in Diabetes Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 82 / 283 Not answered A 50-year-old with newly diagnosed type 2 diabetes has HbA1c of 9.2%. First-line therapy should be started with: A. Insulin injection B. Metformin C. Sulfonylureas D. SGLT2 inhibitors E. GLP-1 agonists Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Metformin is the first-line oral agent for type 2 diabetes due to its efficacy weight-neutral profile and cardiovascular benefits. Reference: American Diabetes Association Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 83 / 283 Not answered A 40-year-old female presents with fatigue weight gain and cold intolerance. TSH is 15 mIU/L and free T4 is low. What is the appropriate therapy? A. TSH suppression therapy B. Levothyroxine replacement C. Liothyronine monotherapy D. Combination T4/T3 E. Antithyroid drugs Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Levothyroxine is the first-line therapy for hypothyroidism and should be titrated to achieve TSH in the normal range. Reference: American Thyroid Association Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 84 / 283 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 60-year-old woman has proximal myopathy with striae with risk profile of long-term steroid exposure. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Antithyroid therapy with risk stratification B. Evidence-based osteoporosis risk reduction C. Individualized glucose-lowering plan D. Urgent stress-dose corticosteroid in adrenal crisis E. Levothyroxine replacement with TSH-guided titration Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: Urgent stress-dose corticosteroid in adrenal crisis is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Endocrinology. Reference: ADA Standards of Care in Diabetes Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 85 / 283 Not answered A 45-year-old with a 2 cm follicular thyroid cancer. Most appropriate treatment: A. Observation only B. Thyroidectomy with radioactive iodine ablation C. Levothyroxine suppression therapy D. Chemotherapy E. Radiation therapy only Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Total thyroidectomy followed by radioactive iodine ablation is standard for most thyroid cancers. Reference: American Thyroid Association Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 17 of 57 Next → »