Endocrinology Board Exam Started: Jul 12, 2026 19:31 Page 2 of 57 Attempt #783 Overall: 0 / 283 questions answered Question 6 / 283 Not answered Question 54: At a primary-care follow-up visit: A patient has cortisol excess, suppressed ACTH, and adrenal mass. What is the likely category? A. Pituitary Cushing disease B. Ectopic ACTH syndrome C. Primary adrenal insufficiency D. ACTH-independent Cushing syndrome E. Pheochromocytoma only Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: [Endocrinology] High cortisol with suppressed ACTH indicates ACTH-independent adrenal cortisol production. Reference: Endocrine Society Cushing Syndrome Guideline. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 7 / 283 Not answered Question 55: At a primary-care follow-up visit: A 30-year-old woman has galactorrhea, amenorrhea, and prolactin 180 ng/mL. Pregnancy test is negative. What is the appropriate next evaluation? A. Start estrogen without workup B. Ignore prolactin if amenorrhea is present C. Adrenal CT first in all patients D. Diagnose menopause E. Review drugs and check TSH, then pituitary MRI if persistent elevation Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: [Endocrinology] Hyperprolactinemia evaluation includes pregnancy exclusion, medication review, TSH, and pituitary imaging for persistent unexplained elevation. Reference: Endocrine Society Hyperprolactinemia Guideline. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 8 / 283 Not answered Question 56: In a ward handover scenario: A 45-year-old woman has HbA1c 8.4% despite lifestyle measures. She has obesity and eGFR 90. What is first-line pharmacologic therapy unless contraindicated? A. Metformin B. Insulin only for all patients C. Glibenclamide mandatory first D. Levothyroxine E. Hydrocortisone Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: [Endocrinology] Metformin is generally first-line for type 2 diabetes when tolerated and not contraindicated, alongside lifestyle. Reference: ADA Standards of Care in Diabetes 2026. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 9 / 283 Not answered Question 57: In a ward handover scenario: A 21-year-old has polyuria, weight loss, ketones, glucose 24 mmol/L, pH 7.21, and bicarbonate 12 mmol/L. What is the diagnosis? A. Hyperthyroidism B. Diabetic ketoacidosis C. SIADH D. Diabetes insipidus only E. Hypoglycemia Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: [Endocrinology] Hyperglycemia, ketones, and metabolic acidosis diagnose DKA. Reference: ADA Standards of Care in Diabetes 2026; JBDS DKA Guideline. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 10 / 283 Not answered Question 49: During an emergency department assessment: A patient has cortisol excess, suppressed ACTH, and adrenal mass. What is the likely category? A. Pituitary Cushing disease B. Ectopic ACTH syndrome C. Primary adrenal insufficiency D. ACTH-independent Cushing syndrome E. Pheochromocytoma only Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: [Endocrinology] High cortisol with suppressed ACTH indicates ACTH-independent adrenal cortisol production. Reference: Endocrine Society Cushing Syndrome Guideline. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 2 of 57 Next → »