Endocrinology Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 13:45 Page 23 of 57 Attempt #2793 Overall: 0 / 283 questions answered Question 111 / 283 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 75-year-old woman has fatigue with cold intolerance with risk profile of postpartum thyroid risk. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Levothyroxine replacement with TSH-guided titration B. Evidence-based osteoporosis risk reduction C. Individualized glucose-lowering plan D. Targeted management of hypercortisolism cause E. Urgent stress-dose corticosteroid in adrenal crisis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Individualized glucose-lowering plan is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Endocrinology. Reference: American Thyroid Association Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 112 / 283 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 31-year-old man is evaluated for fatigue with cold intolerance in the context of autoimmune disease. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. TSH with free T4 B. HbA1c with fasting glucose C. Morning cortisol with ACTH D. Pituitary MRI when indicated E. Serum calcium and PTH Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Serum calcium and PTH is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Endocrinology. Reference: American Thyroid Association Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 113 / 283 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 69-year-old woman is evaluated for heat intolerance with tremor in the context of long-term steroid exposure. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Pituitary MRI when indicated B. Overnight dexamethasone suppression test C. HbA1c with fasting glucose D. Morning cortisol with ACTH E. TSH with free T4 Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Pituitary MRI when indicated is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Endocrinology. Reference: ADA Standards of Care in Diabetes Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 114 / 283 Not answered During ward handover: a 32-year-old woman presents with polyuria with weight loss. Relevant risk context includes long-term steroid exposure. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Primary adrenal insufficiency B. Cushing syndrome C. Primary hypothyroidism D. Type 2 diabetes mellitus E. Primary hyperparathyroidism Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: The pattern of polyuria with weight loss with risk factors such as long-term steroid exposure is most consistent with Primary hypothyroidism. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Endocrinology. Reference: Endocrine Society Clinical Practice Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 115 / 283 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 72-year-old man has polyuria with weight loss with risk profile of postpartum thyroid risk. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Levothyroxine replacement with TSH-guided titration B. Individualized glucose-lowering plan C. Antithyroid therapy with risk stratification D. Evidence-based osteoporosis risk reduction E. Targeted management of hypercortisolism cause Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: Evidence-based osteoporosis risk reduction is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Endocrinology. Reference: AACE Endocrine Guidance; Endocrinology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 23 of 57 Next → »