Endocrinology Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 14:33 Page 24 of 57 Attempt #2836 Overall: 0 / 283 questions answered Question 116 / 283 Not answered During morning rounds: a 73-year-old woman presents with renal stones with hypercalcemia. Relevant risk context includes family endocrine history. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Primary adrenal insufficiency B. Cushing syndrome C. Primary hyperparathyroidism D. Graves disease E. Type 2 diabetes mellitus Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: The pattern of renal stones with hypercalcemia with risk factors such as family endocrine history is most consistent with Type 2 diabetes mellitus. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Endocrinology. Reference: ADA Standards of Care in Diabetes Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 117 / 283 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 53-year-old woman presents with orthostatic hypotension with hyperpigmentation. Relevant risk context includes metabolic syndrome. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Cushing syndrome B. Primary hyperparathyroidism C. Type 2 diabetes mellitus D. Graves disease E. Primary adrenal insufficiency Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: The pattern of orthostatic hypotension with hyperpigmentation with risk factors such as metabolic syndrome is most consistent with Primary adrenal insufficiency. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Endocrinology. Reference: ADA Standards of Care in Diabetes Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 118 / 283 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 32-year-old man has polyuria with weight loss with risk profile of family endocrine history. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Antithyroid therapy with risk stratification B. Urgent stress-dose corticosteroid in adrenal crisis C. Targeted management of hypercortisolism cause D. Individualized glucose-lowering plan E. Levothyroxine replacement with TSH-guided titration Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Targeted management of hypercortisolism cause is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Endocrinology. Reference: American Thyroid Association Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 119 / 283 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 56-year-old man is evaluated for polyuria with weight loss in the context of metabolic syndrome. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Morning cortisol with ACTH B. Pituitary MRI when indicated C. HbA1c with fasting glucose D. Serum calcium and PTH E. Overnight dexamethasone suppression test Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Morning cortisol with ACTH is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Endocrinology. Reference: AACE Endocrine Guidance; Endocrinology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 120 / 283 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 68-year-old woman has orthostatic hypotension with hyperpigmentation with risk profile of pituitary pathology. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Targeted management of hypercortisolism cause B. Individualized glucose-lowering plan C. Evidence-based osteoporosis risk reduction D. Urgent stress-dose corticosteroid in adrenal crisis E. Levothyroxine replacement with TSH-guided titration Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Evidence-based osteoporosis risk reduction is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Endocrinology. Reference: ADA Standards of Care in Diabetes Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 24 of 57 Next → »