Endocrinology Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 15:16 Page 25 of 57 Attempt #2860 Overall: 0 / 283 questions answered Question 121 / 283 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 72-year-old man presents with orthostatic hypotension with hyperpigmentation. Relevant risk context includes family endocrine history. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Cushing syndrome B. Primary hypothyroidism C. Graves disease D. Type 2 diabetes mellitus E. Primary adrenal insufficiency Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: The pattern of orthostatic hypotension with hyperpigmentation with risk factors such as family endocrine history is most consistent with Primary adrenal insufficiency. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Endocrinology. Reference: Endocrine Society Clinical Practice Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 122 / 283 Not answered During morning rounds: a 25-year-old man has polyuria with weight loss with risk profile of family endocrine history. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Urgent stress-dose corticosteroid in adrenal crisis B. Targeted management of hypercortisolism cause C. Levothyroxine replacement with TSH-guided titration D. Antithyroid therapy with risk stratification E. Evidence-based osteoporosis risk reduction Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Evidence-based osteoporosis risk reduction is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Endocrinology. Reference: AACE Endocrine Guidance; Endocrinology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 123 / 283 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 31-year-old woman presents with fatigue with cold intolerance. Relevant risk context includes pituitary pathology. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Primary adrenal insufficiency B. Primary hyperparathyroidism C. Type 2 diabetes mellitus D. Cushing syndrome E. Graves disease Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: The pattern of fatigue with cold intolerance with risk factors such as pituitary pathology is most consistent with Type 2 diabetes mellitus. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Endocrinology. Reference: AACE Endocrine Guidance; Endocrinology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 124 / 283 Not answered During ward handover: a 43-year-old man is evaluated for fatigue with cold intolerance in the context of long-term steroid exposure. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Pituitary MRI when indicated B. HbA1c with fasting glucose C. Morning cortisol with ACTH D. Overnight dexamethasone suppression test E. Serum calcium and PTH Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Serum calcium and PTH is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Endocrinology. Reference: ADA Standards of Care in Diabetes Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 125 / 283 Not answered During morning rounds: a 65-year-old woman has proximal myopathy with striae with risk profile of long-term steroid exposure. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Individualized glucose-lowering plan B. Urgent stress-dose corticosteroid in adrenal crisis C. Evidence-based osteoporosis risk reduction D. Targeted management of hypercortisolism cause E. Levothyroxine replacement with TSH-guided titration Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Evidence-based osteoporosis risk reduction is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Endocrinology. Reference: AACE Endocrine Guidance; Endocrinology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 25 of 57 Next → »