Endocrinology Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 20:39 Page 27 of 57 Attempt #2943 Overall: 0 / 283 questions answered Question 131 / 283 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 68-year-old man is evaluated for proximal myopathy with striae in the context of metabolic syndrome. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. HbA1c with fasting glucose B. Overnight dexamethasone suppression test C. Pituitary MRI when indicated D. TSH with free T4 E. Morning cortisol with ACTH Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Morning cortisol with ACTH is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Endocrinology. Reference: ADA Standards of Care in Diabetes Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 132 / 283 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 26-year-old woman presents with orthostatic hypotension with hyperpigmentation. Relevant risk context includes metabolic syndrome. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Graves disease B. Primary hypothyroidism C. Cushing syndrome D. Primary hyperparathyroidism E. Primary adrenal insufficiency Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: The pattern of orthostatic hypotension with hyperpigmentation with risk factors such as metabolic syndrome is most consistent with Cushing syndrome. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Endocrinology. Reference: American Thyroid Association Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 133 / 283 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 55-year-old man has heat intolerance with tremor with risk profile of metabolic syndrome. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Antithyroid therapy with risk stratification B. Targeted management of hypercortisolism cause C. Urgent stress-dose corticosteroid in adrenal crisis D. Levothyroxine replacement with TSH-guided titration E. Evidence-based osteoporosis risk reduction Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Evidence-based osteoporosis risk reduction is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Endocrinology. Reference: Endocrine Society Clinical Practice Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 134 / 283 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 74-year-old woman is evaluated for orthostatic hypotension with hyperpigmentation in the context of pituitary pathology. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Overnight dexamethasone suppression test B. TSH with free T4 C. HbA1c with fasting glucose D. Morning cortisol with ACTH E. Pituitary MRI when indicated Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: TSH with free T4 is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Endocrinology. Reference: American Thyroid Association Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 135 / 283 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 62-year-old man presents with renal stones with hypercalcemia. Relevant risk context includes autoimmune disease. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Cushing syndrome B. Graves disease C. Primary hyperparathyroidism D. Primary adrenal insufficiency E. Primary hypothyroidism Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: The pattern of renal stones with hypercalcemia with risk factors such as autoimmune disease is most consistent with Graves disease. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Endocrinology. Reference: American Thyroid Association Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 27 of 57 Next → »