Endocrinology Board Exam Started: Jul 14, 2026 00:37 Page 29 of 57 Attempt #3024 Overall: 0 / 283 questions answered Question 141 / 283 Not answered During morning rounds: a 32-year-old woman has orthostatic hypotension with hyperpigmentation with risk profile of metabolic syndrome. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Antithyroid therapy with risk stratification B. Individualized glucose-lowering plan C. Urgent stress-dose corticosteroid in adrenal crisis D. Levothyroxine replacement with TSH-guided titration E. Targeted management of hypercortisolism cause Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Targeted management of hypercortisolism cause is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Endocrinology. Reference: American Thyroid Association Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 142 / 283 Not answered During morning rounds: a 36-year-old woman is evaluated for renal stones with hypercalcemia in the context of family endocrine history. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Serum calcium and PTH B. Overnight dexamethasone suppression test C. Morning cortisol with ACTH D. TSH with free T4 E. Pituitary MRI when indicated Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Morning cortisol with ACTH is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Endocrinology. Reference: AACE Endocrine Guidance; Endocrinology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 143 / 283 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 31-year-old man presents with renal stones with hypercalcemia. Relevant risk context includes family endocrine history. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Primary hypothyroidism B. Primary hyperparathyroidism C. Cushing syndrome D. Primary adrenal insufficiency E. Type 2 diabetes mellitus Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: The pattern of renal stones with hypercalcemia with risk factors such as family endocrine history is most consistent with Primary hypothyroidism. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Endocrinology. Reference: American Thyroid Association Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 144 / 283 Not answered During morning rounds: a 56-year-old woman presents with polyuria with weight loss. Relevant risk context includes pituitary pathology. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Primary hyperparathyroidism B. Type 2 diabetes mellitus C. Primary hypothyroidism D. Cushing syndrome E. Primary adrenal insufficiency Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: The pattern of polyuria with weight loss with risk factors such as pituitary pathology is most consistent with Primary hypothyroidism. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Endocrinology. Reference: AACE Endocrine Guidance; Endocrinology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 145 / 283 Not answered During morning rounds: a 45-year-old man presents with renal stones with hypercalcemia. Relevant risk context includes family endocrine history. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Graves disease B. Primary hypothyroidism C. Primary adrenal insufficiency D. Primary hyperparathyroidism E. Cushing syndrome Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: The pattern of renal stones with hypercalcemia with risk factors such as family endocrine history is most consistent with Primary adrenal insufficiency. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Endocrinology. Reference: Endocrine Society Clinical Practice Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 29 of 57 Next → »