Endocrinology Board Exam Started: Jul 14, 2026 00:32 Page 31 of 57 Attempt #3011 Overall: 0 / 283 questions answered Question 151 / 283 Not answered During ward handover: a 24-year-old man has polyuria with weight loss with risk profile of pituitary pathology. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Individualized glucose-lowering plan B. Antithyroid therapy with risk stratification C. Levothyroxine replacement with TSH-guided titration D. Urgent stress-dose corticosteroid in adrenal crisis E. Evidence-based osteoporosis risk reduction Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Evidence-based osteoporosis risk reduction is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Endocrinology. Reference: Endocrine Society Clinical Practice Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 152 / 283 Not answered During morning rounds: a 81-year-old woman presents with proximal myopathy with striae. Relevant risk context includes family endocrine history. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Cushing syndrome B. Primary hyperparathyroidism C. Graves disease D. Type 2 diabetes mellitus E. Primary hypothyroidism Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: The pattern of proximal myopathy with striae with risk factors such as family endocrine history is most consistent with Type 2 diabetes mellitus. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Endocrinology. Reference: ADA Standards of Care in Diabetes Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 153 / 283 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 38-year-old man is evaluated for fatigue with cold intolerance in the context of postpartum thyroid risk. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Serum calcium and PTH B. Pituitary MRI when indicated C. Morning cortisol with ACTH D. HbA1c with fasting glucose E. TSH with free T4 Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Pituitary MRI when indicated is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Endocrinology. Reference: ADA Standards of Care in Diabetes Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 154 / 283 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 73-year-old man has fatigue with cold intolerance with risk profile of family endocrine history. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Evidence-based osteoporosis risk reduction B. Antithyroid therapy with risk stratification C. Targeted management of hypercortisolism cause D. Levothyroxine replacement with TSH-guided titration E. Individualized glucose-lowering plan Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Evidence-based osteoporosis risk reduction is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Endocrinology. Reference: American Thyroid Association Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 155 / 283 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 79-year-old man presents with fatigue with cold intolerance. Relevant risk context includes long-term steroid exposure. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Cushing syndrome B. Graves disease C. Primary hyperparathyroidism D. Primary adrenal insufficiency E. Type 2 diabetes mellitus Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: The pattern of fatigue with cold intolerance with risk factors such as long-term steroid exposure is most consistent with Primary hyperparathyroidism. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Endocrinology. Reference: Endocrine Society Clinical Practice Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 31 of 57 Next → »