Endocrinology Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 13:28 Page 37 of 57 Attempt #2757 Overall: 0 / 283 questions answered Question 181 / 283 Not answered During ward handover: a 25-year-old man is evaluated for fatigue with cold intolerance in the context of pituitary pathology. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Overnight dexamethasone suppression test B. Morning cortisol with ACTH C. TSH with free T4 D. Serum calcium and PTH E. Pituitary MRI when indicated Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: TSH with free T4 is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Endocrinology. Reference: ADA Standards of Care in Diabetes Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 182 / 283 Not answered During ward handover: a 47-year-old woman is evaluated for fatigue with cold intolerance in the context of metabolic syndrome. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Overnight dexamethasone suppression test B. HbA1c with fasting glucose C. Pituitary MRI when indicated D. Morning cortisol with ACTH E. TSH with free T4 Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Overnight dexamethasone suppression test is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Endocrinology. Reference: AACE Endocrine Guidance; Endocrinology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 183 / 283 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 74-year-old man presents with heat intolerance with tremor. Relevant risk context includes family endocrine history. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Graves disease B. Primary hypothyroidism C. Type 2 diabetes mellitus D. Primary adrenal insufficiency E. Primary hyperparathyroidism Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: The pattern of heat intolerance with tremor with risk factors such as family endocrine history is most consistent with Primary hypothyroidism. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Endocrinology. Reference: ADA Standards of Care in Diabetes Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 184 / 283 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 43-year-old woman has renal stones with hypercalcemia with risk profile of metabolic syndrome. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Antithyroid therapy with risk stratification B. Urgent stress-dose corticosteroid in adrenal crisis C. Evidence-based osteoporosis risk reduction D. Levothyroxine replacement with TSH-guided titration E. Targeted management of hypercortisolism cause Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Urgent stress-dose corticosteroid in adrenal crisis is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Endocrinology. Reference: AACE Endocrine Guidance; Endocrinology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 185 / 283 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 48-year-old woman is evaluated for orthostatic hypotension with hyperpigmentation in the context of postpartum thyroid risk. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. TSH with free T4 B. Serum calcium and PTH C. Pituitary MRI when indicated D. Morning cortisol with ACTH E. Overnight dexamethasone suppression test Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: TSH with free T4 is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Endocrinology. Reference: Endocrine Society Clinical Practice Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 37 of 57 Next → »