Endocrinology Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 11:51 Page 39 of 57 Attempt #2668 Overall: 0 / 283 questions answered Question 191 / 283 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 59-year-old man has renal stones with hypercalcemia with risk profile of long-term steroid exposure. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Levothyroxine replacement with TSH-guided titration B. Individualized glucose-lowering plan C. Targeted management of hypercortisolism cause D. Antithyroid therapy with risk stratification E. Urgent stress-dose corticosteroid in adrenal crisis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Targeted management of hypercortisolism cause is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Endocrinology. Reference: American Thyroid Association Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 192 / 283 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 34-year-old man is evaluated for fatigue with cold intolerance in the context of postpartum thyroid risk. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. HbA1c with fasting glucose B. Serum calcium and PTH C. Morning cortisol with ACTH D. TSH with free T4 E. Overnight dexamethasone suppression test Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Morning cortisol with ACTH is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Endocrinology. Reference: AACE Endocrine Guidance; Endocrinology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 193 / 283 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 57-year-old woman is evaluated for heat intolerance with tremor in the context of long-term steroid exposure. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. TSH with free T4 B. HbA1c with fasting glucose C. Pituitary MRI when indicated D. Serum calcium and PTH E. Morning cortisol with ACTH Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Morning cortisol with ACTH is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Endocrinology. Reference: ADA Standards of Care in Diabetes Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 194 / 283 Not answered During ward handover: a 24-year-old woman presents with polyuria with weight loss. Relevant risk context includes pituitary pathology. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Primary hypothyroidism B. Graves disease C. Type 2 diabetes mellitus D. Primary adrenal insufficiency E. Primary hyperparathyroidism Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: The pattern of polyuria with weight loss with risk factors such as pituitary pathology is most consistent with Primary hypothyroidism. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Endocrinology. Reference: Endocrine Society Clinical Practice Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 195 / 283 Not answered During morning rounds: a 56-year-old woman presents with proximal myopathy with striae. Relevant risk context includes postpartum thyroid risk. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Primary adrenal insufficiency B. Primary hyperparathyroidism C. Graves disease D. Type 2 diabetes mellitus E. Cushing syndrome Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: The pattern of proximal myopathy with striae with risk factors such as postpartum thyroid risk is most consistent with Cushing syndrome. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Endocrinology. Reference: ADA Standards of Care in Diabetes Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 39 of 57 Next → »