Endocrinology Board Exam Started: Jul 12, 2026 22:41 Page 53 of 57 Attempt #1196 Overall: 0 / 283 questions answered Question 261 / 283 Not answered During ward handover: a 51-year-old man has proximal myopathy with striae with risk profile of postpartum thyroid risk. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Levothyroxine replacement with TSH-guided titration B. Targeted management of hypercortisolism cause C. Evidence-based osteoporosis risk reduction D. Antithyroid therapy with risk stratification E. Individualized glucose-lowering plan Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Evidence-based osteoporosis risk reduction is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Endocrinology. Reference: ADA Standards of Care in Diabetes Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 262 / 283 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 34-year-old man presents with fatigue with cold intolerance. Relevant risk context includes autoimmune disease. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Type 2 diabetes mellitus B. Primary adrenal insufficiency C. Primary hyperparathyroidism D. Cushing syndrome E. Primary hypothyroidism Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: The pattern of fatigue with cold intolerance with risk factors such as autoimmune disease is most consistent with Cushing syndrome. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Endocrinology. Reference: American Thyroid Association Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 263 / 283 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 24-year-old woman presents with proximal myopathy with striae. Relevant risk context includes long-term steroid exposure. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Primary adrenal insufficiency B. Graves disease C. Type 2 diabetes mellitus D. Primary hypothyroidism E. Cushing syndrome Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: The pattern of proximal myopathy with striae with risk factors such as long-term steroid exposure is most consistent with Type 2 diabetes mellitus. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Endocrinology. Reference: ADA Standards of Care in Diabetes Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 264 / 283 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 34-year-old woman is evaluated for proximal myopathy with striae in the context of metabolic syndrome. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Pituitary MRI when indicated B. TSH with free T4 C. Overnight dexamethasone suppression test D. Morning cortisol with ACTH E. HbA1c with fasting glucose Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Pituitary MRI when indicated is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Endocrinology. Reference: Endocrine Society Clinical Practice Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 265 / 283 Not answered During ward handover: a 62-year-old man has renal stones with hypercalcemia with risk profile of metabolic syndrome. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Targeted management of hypercortisolism cause B. Individualized glucose-lowering plan C. Urgent stress-dose corticosteroid in adrenal crisis D. Antithyroid therapy with risk stratification E. Evidence-based osteoporosis risk reduction Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Individualized glucose-lowering plan is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Endocrinology. Reference: ADA Standards of Care in Diabetes Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 53 of 57 Next → »