Rheumatology Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 15:14 Page 24 of 53 Attempt #2854 Overall: 0 / 263 questions answered Question 116 / 263 Not answered During ward handover: a 58-year-old man presents with proximal muscle weakness with rash. Relevant risk context includes older age. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Giant cell arteritis B. Axial spondyloarthritis C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Acute gout flare E. Dermatomyositis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: The pattern of proximal muscle weakness with rash with risk factors such as older age is most consistent with Rheumatoid arthritis. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Rheumatology. Reference: ACR Rheumatology Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 117 / 263 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 58-year-old woman has inflammatory back pain improving with exercise with risk profile of psoriasis. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Acute gout anti-inflammatory treatment B. Urgent glucocorticoid for suspected giant cell arteritis C. Hydroxychloroquine-based lupus management D. Multidisciplinary rehabilitation E. Biologic therapy escalation when indicated Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Acute gout anti-inflammatory treatment is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Rheumatology. Reference: EULAR Recommendations; Rheumatology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 118 / 263 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 69-year-old woman has malar rash with arthralgia with risk profile of older age. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Multidisciplinary rehabilitation B. Hydroxychloroquine-based lupus management C. Urgent glucocorticoid for suspected giant cell arteritis D. Acute gout anti-inflammatory treatment E. Methotrexate-based DMARD initiation Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Methotrexate-based DMARD initiation is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Rheumatology. Reference: ACR Rheumatology Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 119 / 263 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 61-year-old man is evaluated for malar rash with arthralgia in the context of psoriasis. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Synovial fluid crystal analysis B. Muscle enzyme panel C. Autoimmune antibody profile D. Anti-CCP antibody testing E. Temporal artery assessment Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Autoimmune antibody profile is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Rheumatology. Reference: EULAR Recommendations; Rheumatology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 120 / 263 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 82-year-old woman has first MTP acute inflammation with risk profile of smoking. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Acute gout anti-inflammatory treatment B. Urgent glucocorticoid for suspected giant cell arteritis C. Methotrexate-based DMARD initiation D. Hydroxychloroquine-based lupus management E. Multidisciplinary rehabilitation Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Acute gout anti-inflammatory treatment is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Rheumatology. Reference: ASAS Guidelines for Spondyloarthritis Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 24 of 53 Next → »