Rheumatology Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 16:11 Page 25 of 53 Attempt #2894 Overall: 0 / 263 questions answered Question 121 / 263 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 59-year-old woman presents with proximal muscle weakness with rash. Relevant risk context includes psoriasis. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Dermatomyositis B. Systemic lupus erythematosus flare C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Acute gout flare E. Giant cell arteritis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: The pattern of proximal muscle weakness with rash with risk factors such as psoriasis is most consistent with Dermatomyositis. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Rheumatology. Reference: ASAS Guidelines for Spondyloarthritis Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 122 / 263 Not answered During morning rounds: a 31-year-old woman has proximal muscle weakness with rash with risk profile of smoking. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Acute gout anti-inflammatory treatment B. Urgent glucocorticoid for suspected giant cell arteritis C. Methotrexate-based DMARD initiation D. Biologic therapy escalation when indicated E. Multidisciplinary rehabilitation Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Methotrexate-based DMARD initiation is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Rheumatology. Reference: EULAR Recommendations; Rheumatology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 123 / 263 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 33-year-old man presents with new headache with jaw claudication. Relevant risk context includes older age. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Systemic lupus erythematosus flare B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Acute gout flare D. Dermatomyositis E. Axial spondyloarthritis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: The pattern of new headache with jaw claudication with risk factors such as older age is most consistent with Rheumatoid arthritis. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Rheumatology. Reference: ACR Rheumatology Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 124 / 263 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 79-year-old woman has malar rash with arthralgia with risk profile of smoking. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Methotrexate-based DMARD initiation B. Biologic therapy escalation when indicated C. Hydroxychloroquine-based lupus management D. Multidisciplinary rehabilitation E. Urgent glucocorticoid for suspected giant cell arteritis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Urgent glucocorticoid for suspected giant cell arteritis is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Rheumatology. Reference: EULAR Recommendations; Rheumatology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 125 / 263 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 69-year-old man has symmetric small-joint morning stiffness with risk profile of smoking. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Methotrexate-based DMARD initiation B. Urgent glucocorticoid for suspected giant cell arteritis C. Biologic therapy escalation when indicated D. Multidisciplinary rehabilitation E. Acute gout anti-inflammatory treatment Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Methotrexate-based DMARD initiation is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Rheumatology. Reference: BSR Rheumatology Guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 25 of 53 Next → »