Rheumatology Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 23:05 Page 28 of 53 Attempt #3004 Overall: 0 / 263 questions answered Question 136 / 263 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 53-year-old woman presents with malar rash with arthralgia. Relevant risk context includes older age. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Systemic lupus erythematosus flare B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Axial spondyloarthritis D. Dermatomyositis E. Giant cell arteritis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: The pattern of malar rash with arthralgia with risk factors such as older age is most consistent with Dermatomyositis. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Rheumatology. Reference: EULAR Recommendations; Rheumatology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 137 / 263 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 76-year-old woman presents with inflammatory back pain improving with exercise. Relevant risk context includes family autoimmune history. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Dermatomyositis B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Axial spondyloarthritis D. Acute gout flare E. Giant cell arteritis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: The pattern of inflammatory back pain improving with exercise with risk factors such as family autoimmune history is most consistent with Axial spondyloarthritis. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Rheumatology. Reference: EULAR Recommendations; Rheumatology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 138 / 263 Not answered During morning rounds: a 52-year-old woman has first MTP acute inflammation with risk profile of older age. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Urgent glucocorticoid for suspected giant cell arteritis B. Acute gout anti-inflammatory treatment C. Multidisciplinary rehabilitation D. Methotrexate-based DMARD initiation E. Biologic therapy escalation when indicated Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: Methotrexate-based DMARD initiation is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Rheumatology. Reference: BSR Rheumatology Guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 139 / 263 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 43-year-old woman is evaluated for inflammatory back pain improving with exercise in the context of older age. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Temporal artery assessment B. Autoimmune antibody profile C. Anti-CCP antibody testing D. Muscle enzyme panel E. ESR and CRP Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: Muscle enzyme panel is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Rheumatology. Reference: ACR Rheumatology Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 140 / 263 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 82-year-old man has proximal muscle weakness with rash with risk profile of recent steroid taper. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Urgent glucocorticoid for suspected giant cell arteritis B. Methotrexate-based DMARD initiation C. Hydroxychloroquine-based lupus management D. Biologic therapy escalation when indicated E. Multidisciplinary rehabilitation Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Urgent glucocorticoid for suspected giant cell arteritis is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Rheumatology. Reference: ASAS Guidelines for Spondyloarthritis Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 28 of 53 Next → »