Rheumatology Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 20:39 Page 29 of 53 Attempt #2945 Overall: 0 / 263 questions answered Question 141 / 263 Not answered During ward handover: a 76-year-old man has proximal muscle weakness with rash with risk profile of psoriasis. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Multidisciplinary rehabilitation B. Urgent glucocorticoid for suspected giant cell arteritis C. Hydroxychloroquine-based lupus management D. Methotrexate-based DMARD initiation E. Acute gout anti-inflammatory treatment Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: Methotrexate-based DMARD initiation is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Rheumatology. Reference: ACR Rheumatology Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 142 / 263 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 33-year-old man has malar rash with arthralgia with risk profile of hyperuricemia. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Hydroxychloroquine-based lupus management B. Biologic therapy escalation when indicated C. Acute gout anti-inflammatory treatment D. Multidisciplinary rehabilitation E. Methotrexate-based DMARD initiation Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Hydroxychloroquine-based lupus management is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Rheumatology. Reference: ACR Rheumatology Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 143 / 263 Not answered During morning rounds: a 30-year-old man presents with inflammatory back pain improving with exercise. Relevant risk context includes family autoimmune history. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Giant cell arteritis C. Dermatomyositis D. Axial spondyloarthritis E. Systemic lupus erythematosus flare Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: The pattern of inflammatory back pain improving with exercise with risk factors such as family autoimmune history is most consistent with Rheumatoid arthritis. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Rheumatology. Reference: BSR Rheumatology Guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 144 / 263 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 68-year-old woman has new headache with jaw claudication with risk profile of psoriasis. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Acute gout anti-inflammatory treatment B. Multidisciplinary rehabilitation C. Hydroxychloroquine-based lupus management D. Methotrexate-based DMARD initiation E. Biologic therapy escalation when indicated Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Acute gout anti-inflammatory treatment is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Rheumatology. Reference: BSR Rheumatology Guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 145 / 263 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 78-year-old woman has proximal muscle weakness with rash with risk profile of smoking. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Biologic therapy escalation when indicated B. Hydroxychloroquine-based lupus management C. Urgent glucocorticoid for suspected giant cell arteritis D. Methotrexate-based DMARD initiation E. Multidisciplinary rehabilitation Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Urgent glucocorticoid for suspected giant cell arteritis is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Rheumatology. Reference: BSR Rheumatology Guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 29 of 53 Next → »