Rheumatology Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 13:33 Page 33 of 53 Attempt #2773 Overall: 0 / 263 questions answered Question 161 / 263 Not answered During ward handover: a 74-year-old man has proximal muscle weakness with rash with risk profile of family autoimmune history. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Methotrexate-based DMARD initiation B. Multidisciplinary rehabilitation C. Acute gout anti-inflammatory treatment D. Urgent glucocorticoid for suspected giant cell arteritis E. Biologic therapy escalation when indicated Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: Urgent glucocorticoid for suspected giant cell arteritis is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Rheumatology. Reference: EULAR Recommendations; Rheumatology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 162 / 263 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 81-year-old man is evaluated for proximal muscle weakness with rash in the context of family autoimmune history. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. ESR and CRP B. Temporal artery assessment C. Autoimmune antibody profile D. Synovial fluid crystal analysis E. Muscle enzyme panel Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: ESR and CRP is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Rheumatology. Reference: ASAS Guidelines for Spondyloarthritis Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 163 / 263 Not answered During morning rounds: a 42-year-old woman presents with inflammatory back pain improving with exercise. Relevant risk context includes smoking. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Axial spondyloarthritis C. Systemic lupus erythematosus flare D. Dermatomyositis E. Giant cell arteritis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: The pattern of inflammatory back pain improving with exercise with risk factors such as smoking is most consistent with Systemic lupus erythematosus flare. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Rheumatology. Reference: ACR Rheumatology Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 164 / 263 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 68-year-old man is evaluated for symmetric small-joint morning stiffness in the context of recent steroid taper. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Synovial fluid crystal analysis B. ESR and CRP C. Muscle enzyme panel D. Autoimmune antibody profile E. Temporal artery assessment Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Temporal artery assessment is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Rheumatology. Reference: ASAS Guidelines for Spondyloarthritis Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 165 / 263 Not answered During ward handover: a 78-year-old woman presents with inflammatory back pain improving with exercise. Relevant risk context includes recent steroid taper. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Axial spondyloarthritis C. Systemic lupus erythematosus flare D. Giant cell arteritis E. Dermatomyositis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: The pattern of inflammatory back pain improving with exercise with risk factors such as recent steroid taper is most consistent with Giant cell arteritis. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Rheumatology. Reference: BSR Rheumatology Guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 33 of 53 Next → »