Rheumatology Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 06:57 Page 40 of 53 Attempt #2221 Overall: 0 / 263 questions answered Question 196 / 263 Not answered During morning rounds: a 32-year-old woman presents with first MTP acute inflammation. Relevant risk context includes family autoimmune history. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Axial spondyloarthritis C. Giant cell arteritis D. Systemic lupus erythematosus flare E. Dermatomyositis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: The pattern of first MTP acute inflammation with risk factors such as family autoimmune history is most consistent with Rheumatoid arthritis. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Rheumatology. Reference: EULAR Recommendations; Rheumatology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 197 / 263 Not answered During morning rounds: a 46-year-old man has malar rash with arthralgia with risk profile of smoking. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Multidisciplinary rehabilitation B. Urgent glucocorticoid for suspected giant cell arteritis C. Hydroxychloroquine-based lupus management D. Biologic therapy escalation when indicated E. Acute gout anti-inflammatory treatment Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Multidisciplinary rehabilitation is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Rheumatology. Reference: EULAR Recommendations; Rheumatology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 198 / 263 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 82-year-old man has symmetric small-joint morning stiffness with risk profile of older age. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Acute gout anti-inflammatory treatment B. Urgent glucocorticoid for suspected giant cell arteritis C. Hydroxychloroquine-based lupus management D. Biologic therapy escalation when indicated E. Multidisciplinary rehabilitation Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Hydroxychloroquine-based lupus management is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Rheumatology. Reference: ACR Rheumatology Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 199 / 263 Not answered During ward handover: a 58-year-old man presents with symmetric small-joint morning stiffness. Relevant risk context includes recent steroid taper. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Acute gout flare C. Systemic lupus erythematosus flare D. Axial spondyloarthritis E. Giant cell arteritis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: The pattern of symmetric small-joint morning stiffness with risk factors such as recent steroid taper is most consistent with Axial spondyloarthritis. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Rheumatology. Reference: BSR Rheumatology Guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 200 / 263 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 68-year-old man presents with inflammatory back pain improving with exercise. Relevant risk context includes recent steroid taper. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Acute gout flare B. Systemic lupus erythematosus flare C. Axial spondyloarthritis D. Rheumatoid arthritis E. Giant cell arteritis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: The pattern of inflammatory back pain improving with exercise with risk factors such as recent steroid taper is most consistent with Axial spondyloarthritis. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Rheumatology. Reference: ACR Rheumatology Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 40 of 53 Next → »