Rheumatology Board Exam Started: Jul 12, 2026 21:55 Page 50 of 53 Attempt #1125 Overall: 0 / 263 questions answered Question 246 / 263 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 71-year-old woman presents with new headache with jaw claudication. Relevant risk context includes family autoimmune history. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Axial spondyloarthritis B. Systemic lupus erythematosus flare C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Giant cell arteritis E. Acute gout flare Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: The pattern of new headache with jaw claudication with risk factors such as family autoimmune history is most consistent with Systemic lupus erythematosus flare. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Rheumatology. Reference: BSR Rheumatology Guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 247 / 263 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 27-year-old man presents with proximal muscle weakness with rash. Relevant risk context includes family autoimmune history. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Axial spondyloarthritis C. Giant cell arteritis D. Acute gout flare E. Systemic lupus erythematosus flare Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: The pattern of proximal muscle weakness with rash with risk factors such as family autoimmune history is most consistent with Acute gout flare. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Rheumatology. Reference: BSR Rheumatology Guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 248 / 263 Not answered During ward handover: a 28-year-old woman presents with proximal muscle weakness with rash. Relevant risk context includes recent steroid taper. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Systemic lupus erythematosus flare B. Acute gout flare C. Dermatomyositis D. Giant cell arteritis E. Axial spondyloarthritis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: The pattern of proximal muscle weakness with rash with risk factors such as recent steroid taper is most consistent with Axial spondyloarthritis. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Rheumatology. Reference: BSR Rheumatology Guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 249 / 263 Not answered During ward handover: a 30-year-old man has first MTP acute inflammation with risk profile of hyperuricemia. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Acute gout anti-inflammatory treatment B. Multidisciplinary rehabilitation C. Biologic therapy escalation when indicated D. Methotrexate-based DMARD initiation E. Hydroxychloroquine-based lupus management Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Biologic therapy escalation when indicated is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Rheumatology. Reference: ACR Rheumatology Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 250 / 263 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 41-year-old man presents with inflammatory back pain improving with exercise. Relevant risk context includes family autoimmune history. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Axial spondyloarthritis B. Dermatomyositis C. Acute gout flare D. Giant cell arteritis E. Rheumatoid arthritis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: The pattern of inflammatory back pain improving with exercise with risk factors such as family autoimmune history is most consistent with Giant cell arteritis. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Rheumatology. Reference: BSR Rheumatology Guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 50 of 53 Next → »