Oncology Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 10:10 Page 16 of 53 Attempt #2586 Overall: 0 / 264 questions answered Question 76 / 264 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 62-year-old woman presents with new mass with constitutional symptoms. Relevant risk context includes advanced-stage disease. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Cancer-associated thrombosis B. Febrile neutropenia C. Malignant hypercalcemia D. Spinal cord compression syndrome E. Lung carcinoma suspicion Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: The pattern of new mass with constitutional symptoms with risk factors such as advanced-stage disease is most consistent with Febrile neutropenia. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Oncology. Reference: NCCN Clinical Practice Guidelines in Oncology Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 77 / 264 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 73-year-old woman presents with back pain with motor deficit. Relevant risk context includes smoking. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Lung carcinoma suspicion B. Breast cancer recurrence concern C. Spinal cord compression syndrome D. Febrile neutropenia E. Cancer-associated thrombosis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: The pattern of back pain with motor deficit with risk factors such as smoking is most consistent with Cancer-associated thrombosis. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Oncology. Reference: NCCN Clinical Practice Guidelines in Oncology Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 78 / 264 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 40-year-old woman has new mass with constitutional symptoms with risk profile of family cancer history. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Anticoagulation for cancer-associated thrombosis B. Urgent broad-spectrum antibiotics in febrile neutropenia C. Guideline-based systemic therapy selection D. Early palliative symptom control integration E. Dexamethasone with urgent oncologic referral for cord compression Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Anticoagulation for cancer-associated thrombosis is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Oncology. Reference: ESMO Clinical Practice Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 79 / 264 Not answered During morning rounds: a 33-year-old man presents with back pain with motor deficit. Relevant risk context includes high tumor burden. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Febrile neutropenia B. Lung carcinoma suspicion C. Breast cancer recurrence concern D. Malignant hypercalcemia E. Spinal cord compression syndrome Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: The pattern of back pain with motor deficit with risk factors such as high tumor burden is most consistent with Febrile neutropenia. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Oncology. Reference: ASCO Guidelines; Oncology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 80 / 264 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 76-year-old man presents with fever during cytotoxic therapy. Relevant risk context includes recent chemotherapy. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Malignant hypercalcemia B. Lung carcinoma suspicion C. Cancer-associated thrombosis D. Febrile neutropenia E. Breast cancer recurrence concern Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: The pattern of fever during cytotoxic therapy with risk factors such as recent chemotherapy is most consistent with Febrile neutropenia. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Oncology. Reference: ASCO Guidelines; Oncology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 16 of 53 Next → »