Infectious Disease Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 06:18 Page 12 of 57 Attempt #2191 Overall: 0 / 282 questions answered Question 56 / 282 Not answered A patient with HIV has CD4 count 80 cells/microliter and dyspnea with diffuse bilateral infiltrates. What opportunistic infection is likely? A. Tinea corporis B. Simple cystitis C. Tetanus D. Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia E. Otitis externa Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: [Infectious Disease] CD4 <200 with subacute dyspnea and diffuse infiltrates suggests Pneumocystis pneumonia. Reference: NIH/CDC/IDSA Opportunistic Infection Guidelines for HIV. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 57 / 282 Not answered A 45-year-old has chronic cough, weight loss, night sweats, and upper-lobe cavitation. What infection must be evaluated? A. Influenza only B. Tetanus C. Pulmonary tuberculosis D. Cellulitis E. Giardiasis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: [Infectious Disease] Chronic systemic symptoms with cavitary upper-lobe disease suggest pulmonary TB requiring sputum testing and isolation. Reference: WHO Consolidated Guidelines on Tuberculosis. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 58 / 282 Not answered A patient has fever, neck stiffness, confusion, and nonblanching rash. What is the immediate management? A. Wait 24 hours for viral PCR B. Blood cultures and urgent empiric IV antibiotics without delaying for LP if unsafe C. Oral penicillin only D. Discharge with analgesia E. Steroid cream Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: [Infectious Disease] Suspected bacterial meningitis requires urgent empiric antibiotics after cultures; LP should not delay treatment if contraindicated or delayed. Reference: IDSA Bacterial Meningitis Guideline. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 59 / 282 Not answered A 30-year-old has urethral discharge and NAAT positive for gonorrhea. What treatment principle is correct? A. Treat gonorrhea with recommended ceftriaxone regimen and cover chlamydia if not excluded B. Use acyclovir only C. No partner management is needed D. Treat with metronidazole only E. Give BCG vaccine Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: [Infectious Disease] Gonorrhea requires ceftriaxone-based therapy, with chlamydia treatment if coinfection is not excluded and partner management. Reference: CDC Sexually Transmitted Infections Treatment Guidelines. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 60 / 282 Not answered During an emergency department assessment: A patient with acute coronary syndrome is allergic to aspirin with true anaphylaxis. What should be considered in specialist care when aspirin is essential? (Variant 988) A. Ignore allergy and give full dose unsupervised B. Avoid all antiplatelets forever C. Aspirin desensitization if benefits outweigh risks D. Use antihistamine as antiplatelet E. Give only paracetamol Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: [Infectious Disease] Aspirin desensitization may be considered when aspirin is essential and allergy is confirmed, under specialist supervision. Reference: ACC/AHA ACS guidance; AAAAI drug allergy practice parameter. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 12 of 57 Next → »