Infectious Disease Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 08:19 Page 14 of 57 Attempt #2406 Overall: 0 / 282 questions answered Question 66 / 282 Not answered At a primary-care follow-up visit: A patient has acute urticaria without airway, breathing, circulation, or GI compromise. What is first-line symptomatic therapy? (Variant 1003) A. IM epinephrine for every isolated wheal B. Long-term oral steroid for all C. Second-generation H1 antihistamine D. Antibiotic E. Warfarin Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: [Infectious Disease] Acute urticaria without anaphylaxis is treated with non-sedating H1 antihistamines. Reference: EAACI/GA2LEN/EuroGuiDerm/APAAACI Urticaria Guideline. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 67 / 282 Not answered In a ward handover scenario: A 30-year-old has urethral discharge and NAAT positive for gonorrhea. What treatment principle is correct? A. Use acyclovir only B. No partner management is needed C. Treat with metronidazole only D. Treat gonorrhea with recommended ceftriaxone regimen and cover chlamydia if not excluded E. Give BCG vaccine Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: [Infectious Disease] Gonorrhea requires ceftriaxone-based therapy, with chlamydia treatment if coinfection is not excluded and partner management. Reference: CDC Sexually Transmitted Infections Treatment Guidelines. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 68 / 282 Not answered In a ward handover scenario: A patient has fever, neck stiffness, confusion, and nonblanching rash. What is the immediate management? A. Wait 24 hours for viral PCR B. Oral penicillin only C. Discharge with analgesia D. Steroid cream E. Blood cultures and urgent empiric IV antibiotics without delaying for LP if unsafe Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: [Infectious Disease] Suspected bacterial meningitis requires urgent empiric antibiotics after cultures; LP should not delay treatment if contraindicated or delayed. Reference: IDSA Bacterial Meningitis Guideline. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 69 / 282 Not answered In a ward handover scenario: A 45-year-old has chronic cough, weight loss, night sweats, and upper-lobe cavitation. What infection must be evaluated? A. Pulmonary tuberculosis B. Influenza only C. Tetanus D. Cellulitis E. Giardiasis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: [Infectious Disease] Chronic systemic symptoms with cavitary upper-lobe disease suggest pulmonary TB requiring sputum testing and isolation. Reference: WHO Consolidated Guidelines on Tuberculosis. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 70 / 282 Not answered In a ward handover scenario: A patient with HIV has CD4 count 80 cells/microliter and dyspnea with diffuse bilateral infiltrates. What opportunistic infection is likely? A. Tinea corporis B. Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia C. Simple cystitis D. Tetanus E. Otitis externa Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: [Infectious Disease] CD4 <200 with subacute dyspnea and diffuse infiltrates suggests Pneumocystis pneumonia. Reference: NIH/CDC/IDSA Opportunistic Infection Guidelines for HIV. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 14 of 57 Next → »