Infectious Disease Board Exam Started: Jul 12, 2026 22:54 Page 4 of 57 Attempt #1284 Overall: 0 / 282 questions answered Question 16 / 282 Not answered During preoperative assessment: A 30-year-old has urethral discharge and NAAT positive for gonorrhea. What treatment principle is correct? A. Use acyclovir only B. No partner management is needed C. Treat with metronidazole only D. Give BCG vaccine E. Treat gonorrhea with recommended ceftriaxone regimen and cover chlamydia if not excluded Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: [Infectious Disease] Gonorrhea requires ceftriaxone-based therapy, with chlamydia treatment if coinfection is not excluded and partner management. Reference: CDC Sexually Transmitted Infections Treatment Guidelines. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 17 / 282 Not answered During preoperative assessment: A patient has fever, neck stiffness, confusion, and nonblanching rash. What is the immediate management? A. Blood cultures and urgent empiric IV antibiotics without delaying for LP if unsafe B. Wait 24 hours for viral PCR C. Oral penicillin only D. Discharge with analgesia E. Steroid cream Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: [Infectious Disease] Suspected bacterial meningitis requires urgent empiric antibiotics after cultures; LP should not delay treatment if contraindicated or delayed. Reference: IDSA Bacterial Meningitis Guideline. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 18 / 282 Not answered During preoperative assessment: A 45-year-old has chronic cough, weight loss, night sweats, and upper-lobe cavitation. What infection must be evaluated? A. Influenza only B. Pulmonary tuberculosis C. Tetanus D. Cellulitis E. Giardiasis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: [Infectious Disease] Chronic systemic symptoms with cavitary upper-lobe disease suggest pulmonary TB requiring sputum testing and isolation. Reference: WHO Consolidated Guidelines on Tuberculosis. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 19 / 282 Not answered During preoperative assessment: A patient with HIV has CD4 count 80 cells/microliter and dyspnea with diffuse bilateral infiltrates. What opportunistic infection is likely? A. Tinea corporis B. Simple cystitis C. Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia D. Tetanus E. Otitis externa Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: [Infectious Disease] CD4 <200 with subacute dyspnea and diffuse infiltrates suggests Pneumocystis pneumonia. Reference: NIH/CDC/IDSA Opportunistic Infection Guidelines for HIV. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 20 / 282 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: A patient with HIV has CD4 count 80 cells/microliter and dyspnea with diffuse bilateral infiltrates. What opportunistic infection is likely? A. Tinea corporis B. Simple cystitis C. Tetanus D. Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia E. Otitis externa Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: [Infectious Disease] CD4 <200 with subacute dyspnea and diffuse infiltrates suggests Pneumocystis pneumonia. Reference: NIH/CDC/IDSA Opportunistic Infection Guidelines for HIV. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 4 of 57 Next → »