Psychiatry Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 09:06 Page 40 of 53 Attempt #2480 Overall: 0 / 264 questions answered Question 196 / 264 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 71-year-old man presents with recent self-harm with ongoing intent. Relevant risk context includes trauma exposure. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Bipolar disorder B. Schizophrenia spectrum disorder C. Major depressive disorder D. Alcohol use disorder E. Generalized anxiety disorder Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: The pattern of recent self-harm with ongoing intent with risk factors such as trauma exposure is most consistent with Generalized anxiety disorder. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Psychiatry. Reference: WHO mhGAP Guidance; Psychiatry topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 197 / 264 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 76-year-old man is evaluated for recent self-harm with ongoing intent in the context of trauma exposure. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Baseline metabolic monitoring B. Substance use screening tools C. Suicide risk assessment D. Collateral history when indicated E. Medical cause exclusion workup Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: Collateral history when indicated is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Psychiatry. Reference: NICE Mental Health Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 198 / 264 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 63-year-old woman presents with excessive uncontrollable worry. Relevant risk context includes family psychiatric history. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Acute suicide risk state B. Bipolar disorder C. Schizophrenia spectrum disorder D. Major depressive disorder E. Alcohol use disorder Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: The pattern of excessive uncontrollable worry with risk factors such as family psychiatric history is most consistent with Major depressive disorder. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Psychiatry. Reference: CANMAT Guidelines; Psychiatry topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 199 / 264 Not answered During ward handover: a 47-year-old man has auditory hallucinations with functional decline with risk profile of psychosocial stress. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Integrated addiction treatment plan B. Safety planning with crisis intervention C. Appropriate first-line pharmacotherapy D. Evidence-based psychotherapy pathway E. Family and social support engagement Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Safety planning with crisis intervention is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Psychiatry. Reference: APA Practice Guidelines; Psychiatry topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 200 / 264 Not answered During ward handover: a 66-year-old man is evaluated for withdrawal symptoms with craving in the context of substance misuse. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Collateral history when indicated B. Medical cause exclusion workup C. Substance use screening tools D. Suicide risk assessment E. Structured psychiatric interview Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Substance use screening tools is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Psychiatry. Reference: CANMAT Guidelines; Psychiatry topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 40 of 53 Next → »