Psychiatry Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 04:21 Page 45 of 53 Attempt #1973 Overall: 0 / 264 questions answered Question 221 / 264 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 73-year-old woman is evaluated for episodic elevated mood with reduced sleep in the context of psychosocial stress. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Medical cause exclusion workup B. Structured psychiatric interview C. Baseline metabolic monitoring D. Collateral history when indicated E. Suicide risk assessment Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Suicide risk assessment is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Psychiatry. Reference: WHO mhGAP Guidance; Psychiatry topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 222 / 264 Not answered During morning rounds: a 46-year-old man has withdrawal symptoms with craving with risk profile of substance misuse. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Evidence-based psychotherapy pathway B. Family and social support engagement C. Integrated addiction treatment plan D. Safety planning with crisis intervention E. Early follow-up and monitoring Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: Safety planning with crisis intervention is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Psychiatry. Reference: APA Practice Guidelines; Psychiatry topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 223 / 264 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 78-year-old woman has recent self-harm with ongoing intent with risk profile of substance misuse. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Appropriate first-line pharmacotherapy B. Integrated addiction treatment plan C. Family and social support engagement D. Safety planning with crisis intervention E. Evidence-based psychotherapy pathway Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: Safety planning with crisis intervention is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Psychiatry. Reference: WHO mhGAP Guidance; Psychiatry topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 224 / 264 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 50-year-old woman is evaluated for recent self-harm with ongoing intent in the context of psychosocial stress. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Baseline metabolic monitoring B. Suicide risk assessment C. Substance use screening tools D. Structured psychiatric interview E. Medical cause exclusion workup Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Medical cause exclusion workup is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Psychiatry. Reference: WHO mhGAP Guidance; Psychiatry topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 225 / 264 Not answered During morning rounds: a 24-year-old woman presents with episodic elevated mood with reduced sleep. Relevant risk context includes social isolation. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Generalized anxiety disorder B. Schizophrenia spectrum disorder C. Major depressive disorder D. Bipolar disorder E. Alcohol use disorder Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: The pattern of episodic elevated mood with reduced sleep with risk factors such as social isolation is most consistent with Alcohol use disorder. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Psychiatry. Reference: CANMAT Guidelines; Psychiatry topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 45 of 53 Next → »