Psychiatry Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 03:30 Page 46 of 53 Attempt #1859 Overall: 0 / 264 questions answered Question 226 / 264 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 65-year-old man presents with episodic elevated mood with reduced sleep. Relevant risk context includes substance misuse. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Acute suicide risk state B. Generalized anxiety disorder C. Alcohol use disorder D. Schizophrenia spectrum disorder E. Major depressive disorder Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: The pattern of episodic elevated mood with reduced sleep with risk factors such as substance misuse is most consistent with Acute suicide risk state. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Psychiatry. Reference: APA Practice Guidelines; Psychiatry topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 227 / 264 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 30-year-old woman presents with recent self-harm with ongoing intent. Relevant risk context includes trauma exposure. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Acute suicide risk state B. Bipolar disorder C. Schizophrenia spectrum disorder D. Generalized anxiety disorder E. Major depressive disorder Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: The pattern of recent self-harm with ongoing intent with risk factors such as trauma exposure is most consistent with Generalized anxiety disorder. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Psychiatry. Reference: WHO mhGAP Guidance; Psychiatry topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 228 / 264 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 63-year-old man has episodic elevated mood with reduced sleep with risk profile of poor treatment adherence. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Early follow-up and monitoring B. Integrated addiction treatment plan C. Evidence-based psychotherapy pathway D. Family and social support engagement E. Safety planning with crisis intervention Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Early follow-up and monitoring is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Psychiatry. Reference: NICE Mental Health Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 229 / 264 Not answered During ward handover: a 26-year-old man presents with persistent low mood with anhedonia. Relevant risk context includes substance misuse. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Alcohol use disorder B. Bipolar disorder C. Major depressive disorder D. Acute suicide risk state E. Schizophrenia spectrum disorder Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: The pattern of persistent low mood with anhedonia with risk factors such as substance misuse is most consistent with Bipolar disorder. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Psychiatry. Reference: APA Practice Guidelines; Psychiatry topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 230 / 264 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 58-year-old man is evaluated for withdrawal symptoms with craving in the context of social isolation. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Substance use screening tools B. Structured psychiatric interview C. Collateral history when indicated D. Medical cause exclusion workup E. Suicide risk assessment Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Substance use screening tools is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Psychiatry. Reference: CANMAT Guidelines; Psychiatry topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 46 of 53 Next → »