Psychiatry Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 02:35 Page 47 of 53 Attempt #1721 Overall: 0 / 264 questions answered Question 231 / 264 Not answered During morning rounds: a 58-year-old man presents with excessive uncontrollable worry. Relevant risk context includes trauma exposure. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Alcohol use disorder B. Generalized anxiety disorder C. Bipolar disorder D. Schizophrenia spectrum disorder E. Major depressive disorder Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: The pattern of excessive uncontrollable worry with risk factors such as trauma exposure is most consistent with Schizophrenia spectrum disorder. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Psychiatry. Reference: NICE Mental Health Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 232 / 264 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 43-year-old man has persistent low mood with anhedonia with risk profile of social isolation. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Integrated addiction treatment plan B. Family and social support engagement C. Appropriate first-line pharmacotherapy D. Early follow-up and monitoring E. Safety planning with crisis intervention Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Family and social support engagement is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Psychiatry. Reference: APA Practice Guidelines; Psychiatry topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 233 / 264 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 53-year-old woman has recent self-harm with ongoing intent with risk profile of trauma exposure. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Early follow-up and monitoring B. Evidence-based psychotherapy pathway C. Integrated addiction treatment plan D. Appropriate first-line pharmacotherapy E. Family and social support engagement Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Integrated addiction treatment plan is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Psychiatry. Reference: NICE Mental Health Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 234 / 264 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 70-year-old man is evaluated for episodic elevated mood with reduced sleep in the context of substance misuse. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Substance use screening tools B. Suicide risk assessment C. Baseline metabolic monitoring D. Structured psychiatric interview E. Medical cause exclusion workup Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Baseline metabolic monitoring is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Psychiatry. Reference: NICE Mental Health Guidelines Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 235 / 264 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 63-year-old woman is evaluated for auditory hallucinations with functional decline in the context of family psychiatric history. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Structured psychiatric interview B. Suicide risk assessment C. Baseline metabolic monitoring D. Medical cause exclusion workup E. Substance use screening tools Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Structured psychiatric interview is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Psychiatry. Reference: CANMAT Guidelines; Psychiatry topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 47 of 53 Next → »