Psychiatry Board Exam Started: Jul 12, 2026 22:47 Page 51 of 53 Attempt #1258 Overall: 0 / 264 questions answered Question 251 / 264 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 69-year-old man is evaluated for persistent low mood with anhedonia in the context of family psychiatric history. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Medical cause exclusion workup B. Collateral history when indicated C. Structured psychiatric interview D. Substance use screening tools E. Suicide risk assessment Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Medical cause exclusion workup is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Psychiatry. Reference: WHO mhGAP Guidance; Psychiatry topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 252 / 264 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 69-year-old man is evaluated for episodic elevated mood with reduced sleep in the context of psychosocial stress. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Suicide risk assessment B. Collateral history when indicated C. Structured psychiatric interview D. Substance use screening tools E. Baseline metabolic monitoring Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Baseline metabolic monitoring is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Psychiatry. Reference: WHO mhGAP Guidance; Psychiatry topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 253 / 264 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 31-year-old man has episodic elevated mood with reduced sleep with risk profile of poor treatment adherence. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Early follow-up and monitoring B. Integrated addiction treatment plan C. Safety planning with crisis intervention D. Family and social support engagement E. Evidence-based psychotherapy pathway Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Early follow-up and monitoring is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Psychiatry. Reference: WHO mhGAP Guidance; Psychiatry topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 254 / 264 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 57-year-old woman has withdrawal symptoms with craving with risk profile of social isolation. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Safety planning with crisis intervention B. Evidence-based psychotherapy pathway C. Family and social support engagement D. Appropriate first-line pharmacotherapy E. Integrated addiction treatment plan Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Evidence-based psychotherapy pathway is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Psychiatry. Reference: WHO mhGAP Guidance; Psychiatry topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 255 / 264 Not answered During ward handover: a 28-year-old man presents with auditory hallucinations with functional decline. Relevant risk context includes poor treatment adherence. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Generalized anxiety disorder B. Acute suicide risk state C. Bipolar disorder D. Major depressive disorder E. Schizophrenia spectrum disorder Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: The pattern of auditory hallucinations with functional decline with risk factors such as poor treatment adherence is most consistent with Generalized anxiety disorder. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Psychiatry. Reference: WHO mhGAP Guidance; Psychiatry topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 51 of 53 Next → »