Ophthalmology Board Exam Started: Jul 12, 2026 22:00 Page 50 of 51 Attempt #1164 Overall: 0 / 253 questions answered Question 246 / 253 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 53-year-old woman presents with sudden painless monocular blindness. Relevant risk context includes vascular risk profile. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Acute angle-closure glaucoma B. Diabetic retinopathy progression C. Conjunctivitis D. Central retinal artery occlusion E. Retinal detachment Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: The pattern of sudden painless monocular blindness with risk factors such as vascular risk profile is most consistent with Retinal detachment. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Ophthalmology. Reference: AAO Preferred Practice Patterns Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 247 / 253 Not answered During ward handover: a 52-year-old man presents with photophobia with ciliary flush. Relevant risk context includes older age. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Acute angle-closure glaucoma B. Retinal detachment C. Conjunctivitis D. Anterior uveitis E. Central retinal artery occlusion Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: The pattern of photophobia with ciliary flush with risk factors such as older age is most consistent with Conjunctivitis. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Ophthalmology. Reference: AAO Preferred Practice Patterns Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 248 / 253 Not answered During morning rounds: a 67-year-old man has progressive visual blur in diabetes with risk profile of diabetes. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Targeted anti-inflammatory eye therapy when indicated B. Vascular risk-directed evaluation for retinal ischemia C. Appropriate antimicrobial therapy when infection is likely D. Emergency IOP-lowering protocol E. Diabetes and blood pressure optimization Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Vascular risk-directed evaluation for retinal ischemia is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Ophthalmology. Reference: Royal College Ophthalmology Guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 249 / 253 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 42-year-old man presents with sudden painless monocular blindness. Relevant risk context includes myopia. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Retinal detachment B. Diabetic retinopathy progression C. Conjunctivitis D. Anterior uveitis E. Acute angle-closure glaucoma Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: The pattern of sudden painless monocular blindness with risk factors such as myopia is most consistent with Retinal detachment. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Ophthalmology. Reference: NICE Glaucoma Guideline; Ophthalmology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 250 / 253 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 75-year-old woman presents with painful red eye with halos. Relevant risk context includes older age. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Conjunctivitis B. Diabetic retinopathy progression C. Central retinal artery occlusion D. Retinal detachment E. Acute angle-closure glaucoma Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: The pattern of painful red eye with halos with risk factors such as older age is most consistent with Retinal detachment. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Ophthalmology. Reference: Royal College Ophthalmology Guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 50 of 51 Next → »