Surgery Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 06:18 Page 49 of 59 Attempt #2188 Overall: 0 / 295 questions answered Question 241 / 295 Not answered During ward handover: a 46-year-old woman presents with right lower quadrant pain migrating from periumbilical area. Relevant risk context includes gallstones. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Acute calculous cholecystitis B. Acute mesenteric ischemia C. Postoperative surgical site infection D. Small bowel obstruction E. Acute appendicitis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: The pattern of right lower quadrant pain migrating from periumbilical area with risk factors such as gallstones is most consistent with Acute calculous cholecystitis. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Surgery. Reference: Tokyo Guidelines for Cholecystitis Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 242 / 295 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 78-year-old woman is evaluated for wound erythema with purulent drainage in the context of NSAID use. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Lactate and perfusion assessment B. Contrast-enhanced CT abdomen C. Intraoperative culture when indicated D. Focused abdominal exam with inflammatory markers E. Erect chest imaging for free air Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Erect chest imaging for free air is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Surgery. Reference: NICE Surgical Site Infection Guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 243 / 295 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 52-year-old woman presents with pain out of proportion with metabolic acidosis. Relevant risk context includes NSAID use. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Postoperative surgical site infection B. Acute calculous cholecystitis C. Acute mesenteric ischemia D. Acute appendicitis E. Perforated peptic ulcer Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: The pattern of pain out of proportion with metabolic acidosis with risk factors such as NSAID use is most consistent with Acute mesenteric ischemia. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Surgery. Reference: WSES Guidelines; Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 244 / 295 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 79-year-old man has right lower quadrant pain migrating from periumbilical area with risk profile of NSAID use. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Early sepsis management in surgical infection B. DVT prophylaxis and perioperative optimization C. Source control with appropriate antibiotics D. Postoperative complication surveillance E. Resuscitation and electrolyte correction Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Early sepsis management in surgical infection is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Surgery. Reference: WSES Guidelines; Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 245 / 295 Not answered During morning rounds: a 74-year-old woman is evaluated for wound erythema with purulent drainage in the context of NSAID use. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Lactate and perfusion assessment B. Focused abdominal exam with inflammatory markers C. Contrast-enhanced CT abdomen D. Erect chest imaging for free air E. Abdominal ultrasound Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Lactate and perfusion assessment is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Surgery. Reference: ATLS Principles; Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 49 of 59 Next → »