Surgery Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 04:24 Page 51 of 59 Attempt #1992 Overall: 0 / 295 questions answered Question 251 / 295 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 41-year-old man presents with right upper quadrant pain with Murphy sign. Relevant risk context includes immunosuppression. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Acute calculous cholecystitis B. Postoperative surgical site infection C. Perforated peptic ulcer D. Acute appendicitis E. Small bowel obstruction Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: The pattern of right upper quadrant pain with Murphy sign with risk factors such as immunosuppression is most consistent with Small bowel obstruction. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Surgery. Reference: WSES Guidelines; Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 252 / 295 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 57-year-old woman has abdominal distension with vomiting with risk profile of gallstones. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Source control with appropriate antibiotics B. Resuscitation and electrolyte correction C. DVT prophylaxis and perioperative optimization D. Timely operative consultation E. Early sepsis management in surgical infection Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: Timely operative consultation is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Surgery. Reference: NICE Surgical Site Infection Guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 253 / 295 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 70-year-old man presents with wound erythema with purulent drainage. Relevant risk context includes vascular disease. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Acute mesenteric ischemia B. Postoperative surgical site infection C. Perforated peptic ulcer D. Small bowel obstruction E. Acute appendicitis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: The pattern of wound erythema with purulent drainage with risk factors such as vascular disease is most consistent with Small bowel obstruction. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Surgery. Reference: Tokyo Guidelines for Cholecystitis Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 254 / 295 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 62-year-old man has abdominal distension with vomiting with risk profile of NSAID use. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Timely operative consultation B. Resuscitation and electrolyte correction C. Source control with appropriate antibiotics D. Postoperative complication surveillance E. Early sepsis management in surgical infection Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Resuscitation and electrolyte correction is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Surgery. Reference: ATLS Principles; Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 255 / 295 Not answered In an outpatient specialty clinic: a 68-year-old woman has pain out of proportion with metabolic acidosis with risk profile of NSAID use. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Resuscitation and electrolyte correction B. Timely operative consultation C. Source control with appropriate antibiotics D. Early sepsis management in surgical infection E. Postoperative complication surveillance Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Source control with appropriate antibiotics is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Surgery. Reference: Tokyo Guidelines for Cholecystitis Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 51 of 59 Next → »