Surgery Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 03:31 Page 52 of 59 Attempt #1866 Overall: 0 / 295 questions answered Question 256 / 295 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 74-year-old woman presents with pain out of proportion with metabolic acidosis. Relevant risk context includes immunosuppression. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Perforated peptic ulcer B. Postoperative surgical site infection C. Acute mesenteric ischemia D. Small bowel obstruction E. Acute calculous cholecystitis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: The pattern of pain out of proportion with metabolic acidosis with risk factors such as immunosuppression is most consistent with Small bowel obstruction. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Surgery. Reference: WSES Guidelines; Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 257 / 295 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 39-year-old woman presents with wound erythema with purulent drainage. Relevant risk context includes gallstones. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Small bowel obstruction B. Acute appendicitis C. Postoperative surgical site infection D. Acute mesenteric ischemia E. Acute calculous cholecystitis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: The pattern of wound erythema with purulent drainage with risk factors such as gallstones is most consistent with Acute appendicitis. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Surgery. Reference: NICE Surgical Site Infection Guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 258 / 295 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 75-year-old man presents with right upper quadrant pain with Murphy sign. Relevant risk context includes prior abdominal surgery. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Small bowel obstruction B. Acute appendicitis C. Acute calculous cholecystitis D. Acute mesenteric ischemia E. Perforated peptic ulcer Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: The pattern of right upper quadrant pain with Murphy sign with risk factors such as prior abdominal surgery is most consistent with Acute appendicitis. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Surgery. Reference: Tokyo Guidelines for Cholecystitis Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 259 / 295 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 48-year-old woman is evaluated for sudden severe epigastric pain with peritonism in the context of NSAID use. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Intraoperative culture when indicated B. Lactate and perfusion assessment C. Contrast-enhanced CT abdomen D. Abdominal ultrasound E. Erect chest imaging for free air Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Intraoperative culture when indicated is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Surgery. Reference: Tokyo Guidelines for Cholecystitis Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 260 / 295 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 29-year-old man has right upper quadrant pain with Murphy sign with risk profile of gallstones. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Postoperative complication surveillance B. Resuscitation and electrolyte correction C. Early sepsis management in surgical infection D. Source control with appropriate antibiotics E. DVT prophylaxis and perioperative optimization Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Resuscitation and electrolyte correction is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Surgery. Reference: WSES Guidelines; Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 52 of 59 Next → »