Surgery Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 02:36 Page 53 of 59 Attempt #1723 Overall: 0 / 295 questions answered Question 261 / 295 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 30-year-old woman is evaluated for right upper quadrant pain with Murphy sign in the context of gallstones. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Intraoperative culture when indicated B. Focused abdominal exam with inflammatory markers C. Contrast-enhanced CT abdomen D. Lactate and perfusion assessment E. Erect chest imaging for free air Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Focused abdominal exam with inflammatory markers is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Surgery. Reference: WSES Guidelines; Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 262 / 295 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 63-year-old man presents with right lower quadrant pain migrating from periumbilical area. Relevant risk context includes prior abdominal surgery. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Acute calculous cholecystitis B. Small bowel obstruction C. Acute appendicitis D. Acute mesenteric ischemia E. Postoperative surgical site infection Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: The pattern of right lower quadrant pain migrating from periumbilical area with risk factors such as prior abdominal surgery is most consistent with Acute calculous cholecystitis. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Surgery. Reference: ATLS Principles; Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 263 / 295 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 53-year-old man is evaluated for right lower quadrant pain migrating from periumbilical area in the context of prior abdominal surgery. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Lactate and perfusion assessment B. Intraoperative culture when indicated C. Focused abdominal exam with inflammatory markers D. Erect chest imaging for free air E. Contrast-enhanced CT abdomen Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: Focused abdominal exam with inflammatory markers is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Surgery. Reference: Tokyo Guidelines for Cholecystitis Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 264 / 295 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 69-year-old man has abdominal distension with vomiting with risk profile of prior abdominal surgery. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Source control with appropriate antibiotics B. Postoperative complication surveillance C. Timely operative consultation D. Resuscitation and electrolyte correction E. DVT prophylaxis and perioperative optimization Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Postoperative complication surveillance is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Surgery. Reference: Tokyo Guidelines for Cholecystitis Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 265 / 295 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 67-year-old man presents with sudden severe epigastric pain with peritonism. Relevant risk context includes vascular disease. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Small bowel obstruction B. Postoperative surgical site infection C. Perforated peptic ulcer D. Acute appendicitis E. Acute calculous cholecystitis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: The pattern of sudden severe epigastric pain with peritonism with risk factors such as vascular disease is most consistent with Perforated peptic ulcer. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Surgery. Reference: Tokyo Guidelines for Cholecystitis Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 53 of 59 Next → »