Surgery Board Exam Started: Jul 12, 2026 21:54 Page 58 of 59 Attempt #1111 Overall: 0 / 295 questions answered Question 286 / 295 Not answered During morning rounds: a 65-year-old man has wound erythema with purulent drainage with risk profile of diabetes. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Timely operative consultation B. Postoperative complication surveillance C. Source control with appropriate antibiotics D. Resuscitation and electrolyte correction E. Early sepsis management in surgical infection Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Postoperative complication surveillance is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Surgery. Reference: ATLS Principles; Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 287 / 295 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 78-year-old man has right upper quadrant pain with Murphy sign with risk profile of vascular disease. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Resuscitation and electrolyte correction B. Postoperative complication surveillance C. Source control with appropriate antibiotics D. Early sepsis management in surgical infection E. Timely operative consultation Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Timely operative consultation is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Surgery. Reference: NICE Surgical Site Infection Guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 288 / 295 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 50-year-old woman presents with wound erythema with purulent drainage. Relevant risk context includes prior abdominal surgery. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Acute calculous cholecystitis B. Perforated peptic ulcer C. Small bowel obstruction D. Acute mesenteric ischemia E. Acute appendicitis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: The pattern of wound erythema with purulent drainage with risk factors such as prior abdominal surgery is most consistent with Acute calculous cholecystitis. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Surgery. Reference: Tokyo Guidelines for Cholecystitis Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 289 / 295 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 78-year-old woman presents with right upper quadrant pain with Murphy sign. Relevant risk context includes vascular disease. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Acute mesenteric ischemia B. Perforated peptic ulcer C. Acute appendicitis D. Postoperative surgical site infection E. Small bowel obstruction Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: The pattern of right upper quadrant pain with Murphy sign with risk factors such as vascular disease is most consistent with Small bowel obstruction. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Surgery. Reference: ATLS Principles; Surgery topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 290 / 295 Not answered During ward handover: a 28-year-old woman presents with right upper quadrant pain with Murphy sign. Relevant risk context includes NSAID use. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Perforated peptic ulcer B. Acute calculous cholecystitis C. Postoperative surgical site infection D. Acute appendicitis E. Small bowel obstruction Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: The pattern of right upper quadrant pain with Murphy sign with risk factors such as NSAID use is most consistent with Small bowel obstruction. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Surgery. Reference: NICE Surgical Site Infection Guidance Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 58 of 59 Next → »