Surgery Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 02:40 Page 8 of 59 Attempt #1740 Overall: 0 / 295 questions answered Question 36 / 295 Not answered Question 79: During morning rounds: A 65-year-old has painless jaundice, weight loss, and palpable gallbladder. What malignancy is concerning? A. Appendiceal abscess B. Benign hemorrhoids C. Achalasia D. Pancreatic head cancer E. Inguinal hernia Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: [Surgery] Painless obstructive jaundice with weight loss suggests pancreaticobiliary malignancy. Reference: NCCN Pancreatic Adenocarcinoma Guidelines. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 37 / 295 Not answered Question 78: During morning rounds: A patient has severe abdominal pain, rigid abdomen, and free air under diaphragm. What is the likely diagnosis? A. Irritable bowel syndrome B. Constipation only C. Perforated viscus D. Gastroenteritis only E. Renal colic always Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: [Surgery] Peritonitis with pneumoperitoneum suggests perforated hollow viscus requiring urgent surgical management. Reference: WSES Guidelines for Perforated Peptic Ulcer. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 38 / 295 Not answered Question 69: At a preventive-care consultation: A 65-year-old has painless jaundice, weight loss, and palpable gallbladder. What malignancy is concerning? A. Appendiceal abscess B. Benign hemorrhoids C. Achalasia D. Pancreatic head cancer E. Inguinal hernia Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: [Surgery] Painless obstructive jaundice with weight loss suggests pancreaticobiliary malignancy. Reference: NCCN Pancreatic Adenocarcinoma Guidelines. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 39 / 295 Not answered Question 70: At a preventive-care consultation: A groin lump above and medial to the pubic tubercle with cough impulse is most likely what? A. Femoral hernia B. Hydrocele C. Varicocele D. Lipoma always E. Inguinal hernia Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: [Surgery] An inguinal hernia is classically above and medial to the pubic tubercle; femoral is below and lateral. Reference: European Hernia Society Groin Hernia Guidelines. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 40 / 295 Not answered Question 71: In a rural clinic with limited resources: A 22-year-old has migratory periumbilical pain now in right iliac fossa with fever and rebound tenderness. What is the likely diagnosis? A. Acute appendicitis B. Renal failure C. Pneumonia D. Migraine E. Gout Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: [Surgery] Migratory pain to the right iliac fossa with peritoneal signs suggests acute appendicitis. Reference: World Society of Emergency Surgery Jerusalem Appendicitis Guideline. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 8 of 59 Next → »