Cardiology Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 02:37 Page 56 of 62 Attempt #1727 Overall: 0 / 306 questions answered Question 276 / 306 Not answered During ward handover: a 41-year-old man presents with palpitations with irregularly irregular pulse. Relevant risk context includes family history of premature coronary disease. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Hypertensive emergency B. Dilated cardiomyopathy C. Acute decompensated heart failure D. ST-elevation myocardial infarction E. Atrial fibrillation Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: The pattern of palpitations with irregularly irregular pulse with risk factors such as family history of premature coronary disease is most consistent with ST-elevation myocardial infarction. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Cardiology. Reference: ESC Atrial Fibrillation Guideline Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 277 / 306 Not answered During ward handover: a 58-year-old woman has crushing chest pain radiating to left arm with risk profile of chronic hypertension. After initial stabilization and assessment, what is the most appropriate management step? A. Secondary prevention with statin and antiplatelet therapy B. Guideline-directed medical therapy for HFrEF C. Early reperfusion strategy D. Targeted blood pressure reduction with monitoring E. Rate or rhythm control with anticoagulation assessment Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: Secondary prevention with statin and antiplatelet therapy is preferred because it aligns with guideline-based care priorities, reduces avoidable complications, and supports safe outcomes in Cardiology. Reference: AHA/ACC Heart Failure Guideline (2022 update) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 278 / 306 Not answered During morning rounds: a 70-year-old man presents with progressive dyspnea with bibasal crackles. Relevant risk context includes long-standing diabetes. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Severe aortic stenosis B. ST-elevation myocardial infarction C. Acute decompensated heart failure D. Atrial fibrillation E. Hypertensive emergency Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: The pattern of progressive dyspnea with bibasal crackles with risk factors such as long-standing diabetes is most consistent with Acute decompensated heart failure. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Cardiology. Reference: AHA/ACC Heart Failure Guideline (2022 update) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 279 / 306 Not answered In an emergency department assessment: a 50-year-old man is evaluated for palpitations with irregularly irregular pulse in the context of hyperlipidemia. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. BNP or NT-proBNP measurement B. Ambulatory rhythm monitoring C. CT angiography for aortic syndrome D. 12-lead ECG with serial troponins E. Urgent transthoracic echocardiography Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: Ambulatory rhythm monitoring is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Cardiology. Reference: AHA/ACC Heart Failure Guideline (2022 update) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 280 / 306 Not answered During a primary-care follow-up visit: a 67-year-old man presents with progressive dyspnea with bibasal crackles. Relevant risk context includes chronic hypertension. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Acute decompensated heart failure B. Hypertensive emergency C. Severe aortic stenosis D. Dilated cardiomyopathy E. ST-elevation myocardial infarction Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: The pattern of progressive dyspnea with bibasal crackles with risk factors such as chronic hypertension is most consistent with Hypertensive emergency. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Cardiology. Reference: AHA/ACC Heart Failure Guideline (2022 update) Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 56 of 62 Next → »