Urology Board Exam Started: Jul 12, 2026 21:04 Page 53 of 53 Attempt #978 Overall: 0 / 263 questions answered Question 261 / 263 Not answered At a multidisciplinary case conference: a 31-year-old man presents with sepsis with hydronephrosis. Relevant risk context includes recent urinary instrumentation. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Ureteric colic B. Testicular torsion C. Benign prostatic hyperplasia D. Obstructive infected system E. Acute bacterial prostatitis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: The pattern of sepsis with hydronephrosis with risk factors such as recent urinary instrumentation is most consistent with Benign prostatic hyperplasia. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Urology. Reference: AUA Clinical Guidelines; Urology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 262 / 263 Not answered At a preventive-care consultation: a 27-year-old woman is evaluated for colicky flank pain radiating to groin in the context of smoking. Which is the most appropriate next investigation? A. Cystoscopy pathway B. Non-contrast CT KUB C. Urinalysis and culture D. Post-void residual assessment E. Renal function and sepsis markers Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: Renal function and sepsis markers is the most appropriate next test because it directly clarifies the leading diagnosis and guides immediate management in Urology. Reference: NICE LUTS Guidance; Urology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 263 / 263 Not answered During ward handover: a 46-year-old man presents with colicky flank pain radiating to groin. Relevant risk context includes older age. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Bladder malignancy suspicion B. Ureteric colic C. Testicular torsion D. Obstructive infected system E. Acute bacterial prostatitis Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: The pattern of colicky flank pain radiating to groin with risk factors such as older age is most consistent with Testicular torsion. This answer best matches the expected diagnostic framework for Urology. Reference: AUA Clinical Guidelines; Urology topic-specific current guideline update Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 53 of 53 Submit Exam