Gynecology Board Exam Started: Jul 13, 2026 06:19 Page 19 of 29 Attempt #2196 Overall: 0 / 143 questions answered Question 91 / 143 Not answered A 28-year-old at 10 weeks gestation has vaginal bleeding and closed cervix; ultrasound shows viable intrauterine pregnancy. What is the diagnosis? A. Threatened miscarriage B. Inevitable miscarriage C. Ectopic pregnancy proven D. Molar pregnancy E. Postpartum hemorrhage Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: [Obstetrics & Gynecology] Bleeding with closed cervix and viable intrauterine pregnancy is threatened miscarriage. Reference: NICE Ectopic Pregnancy and Miscarriage Guideline. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 92 / 143 Not answered A pregnant patient at 32 weeks has BP 162/110 and proteinuria with headache. What is the diagnosis and priority? A. Normal pregnancy swelling B. Severe pre-eclampsia needing urgent maternal assessment and treatment C. Gestational diabetes only D. Hyperemesis gravidarum E. Uncomplicated UTI Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: [Obstetrics & Gynecology] Severe-range BP with proteinuria and neurologic symptoms is severe pre-eclampsia requiring urgent management. Reference: ACOG Gestational Hypertension and Preeclampsia Practice Bulletin. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 93 / 143 Not answered A 26-year-old has amenorrhea, positive pregnancy test, unilateral pelvic pain, and no intrauterine pregnancy on transvaginal ultrasound with high beta-hCG. What must be suspected? A. Normal pregnancy always B. Endometriosis only C. Ectopic pregnancy D. Appendicitis excluded E. Ovarian cancer proven Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: [Obstetrics & Gynecology] Positive pregnancy test with pain and no intrauterine pregnancy above discriminatory level raises concern for ectopic pregnancy. Reference: NICE Ectopic Pregnancy and Miscarriage Guideline. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 94 / 143 Not answered A woman at 28 weeks has 75-g OGTT fasting 5.4 mmol/L and 2-hour 9.0 mmol/L. What is the likely diagnosis? A. Type 1 diabetes always B. Normal pregnancy glucose C. Hypoglycemia D. Gestational diabetes mellitus E. Pheochromocytoma Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: [Obstetrics & Gynecology] OGTT values above diagnostic thresholds at 24-28 weeks support gestational diabetes. Reference: IADPSG/WHO Criteria; ADA Standards of Care in Diabetes. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 95 / 143 Not answered A postpartum woman has heavy bleeding, boggy enlarged uterus, and tachycardia. What is first-line immediate management? A. Wait for spontaneous resolution B. Oral iron only C. Magnesium sulfate as uterotonic D. Methotrexate E. Uterine massage and uterotonic such as oxytocin Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: [Obstetrics & Gynecology] Uterine atony is the commonest cause of postpartum hemorrhage; massage and oxytocin are first-line. Reference: WHO Recommendations for Prevention and Treatment of Postpartum Haemorrhage. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 19 of 29 Next → »