Gynecology Board Exam Started: Jul 12, 2026 21:07 Page 2 of 29 Attempt #1019 Overall: 0 / 143 questions answered Question 6 / 143 Not answered During morning rounds: A pregnant patient at 32 weeks has BP 162/110 and proteinuria with headache. What is the diagnosis and priority? A. Normal pregnancy swelling B. Gestational diabetes only C. Severe pre-eclampsia needing urgent maternal assessment and treatment D. Hyperemesis gravidarum E. Uncomplicated UTI Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: C Explanation: [Obstetrics & Gynecology] Severe-range BP with proteinuria and neurologic symptoms is severe pre-eclampsia requiring urgent management. Reference: ACOG Gestational Hypertension and Preeclampsia Practice Bulletin. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 7 / 143 Not answered During morning rounds: A 26-year-old has amenorrhea, positive pregnancy test, unilateral pelvic pain, and no intrauterine pregnancy on transvaginal ultrasound with high beta-hCG. What must be suspected? A. Normal pregnancy always B. Endometriosis only C. Appendicitis excluded D. Ectopic pregnancy E. Ovarian cancer proven Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: D Explanation: [Obstetrics & Gynecology] Positive pregnancy test with pain and no intrauterine pregnancy above discriminatory level raises concern for ectopic pregnancy. Reference: NICE Ectopic Pregnancy and Miscarriage Guideline. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 8 / 143 Not answered During morning rounds: A woman at 28 weeks has 75-g OGTT fasting 5.4 mmol/L and 2-hour 9.0 mmol/L. What is the likely diagnosis? A. Type 1 diabetes always B. Normal pregnancy glucose C. Hypoglycemia D. Pheochromocytoma E. Gestational diabetes mellitus Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: E Explanation: [Obstetrics & Gynecology] OGTT values above diagnostic thresholds at 24-28 weeks support gestational diabetes. Reference: IADPSG/WHO Criteria; ADA Standards of Care in Diabetes. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 9 / 143 Not answered During morning rounds: A postpartum woman has heavy bleeding, boggy enlarged uterus, and tachycardia. What is first-line immediate management? A. Uterine massage and uterotonic such as oxytocin B. Wait for spontaneous resolution C. Oral iron only D. Magnesium sulfate as uterotonic E. Methotrexate Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: A Explanation: [Obstetrics & Gynecology] Uterine atony is the commonest cause of postpartum hemorrhage; massage and oxytocin are first-line. Reference: WHO Recommendations for Prevention and Treatment of Postpartum Haemorrhage. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Question 10 / 143 Not answered During morning rounds: A 30-year-old has infertility, irregular cycles, hirsutism, and polycystic ovarian morphology after excluding mimics. What is the diagnosis? A. Premature ovarian insufficiency always B. Polycystic ovary syndrome C. Asherman syndrome D. Endometrial cancer proven E. Normal variant only Show Answer & Explanation Correct Answer: B Explanation: [Obstetrics & Gynecology] PCOS is diagnosed using oligo/anovulation, hyperandrogenism, and polycystic ovarian morphology after excluding related disorders. Reference: International Evidence-based PCOS Guideline. Reference: Comments & Discussion No comments yet. Be the first to comment! Your Name * Your Comment * (Max 200 chars) 200 characters remaining Post Comment Comments remaining this hour: 10/10 Cancel « ← Previous Page 2 of 29 Next → »